You need to login first

Login information

Haven't yet registered?

×

Categories

Homework Help Boards (University / College Level)

Biology-Related

Science-Related

Others

Laboratory Help


Non-Homework Help Boards

Notes

Guidance

Discussion

×
* * * *
f_zah1
4875
top posters

Support Us

If you found our community helpful, your small donation will continue to help us reach more students around the globe. You may also like us on Facebook or follow us on Twitter.
Pages: 2  ...    Go Down
  Reply  |  New Topic  |  more  
anyone have the answers to AMU/APUS Costitutional law quiz 3 and final? I have a
Read 70039 times | 102 Replies | Average Rating Not Rated Yet
Reply# 14 Quote
Posts: 1
Points: 50
Rep:  +0  -0 
anyone have the answers to AMU/APUS Costitutional law quiz 3 and final? I have a
2 years ago
I have cmrj 302 and 303 if it helps

Yes!!! I need it, please upload it Smug


Report this PostReport Abuse
Reply# 15 Quote
Posts: 11
Points: 154
Rep:  +0  -0 
anyone have the answers to AMU/APUS Costitutional law quiz 3 and final? I have a
2 years ago
Hy lilrican hook me up with Ethics in criminal justice CMRJ 308, Criminal Law LSTD 302 and Criminal Legal Process LSTD 400 if you can brother. IK have CMRJ 302 AND 303 if you need them.


Report this PostReport Abuse
Reply# 16 Quote
Posts: 1
Points: 37
Rep:  +0  -0 
anyone have the answers to AMU/APUS Costitutional law quiz 3 and final? I have a
2 years ago
just upload them bro, please Undecided Undecided


Report this PostReport Abuse
Reply# 17 Quote
Posts: 11
Points: 154
Rep:  +0  -0 
anyone have the answers to AMU/APUS Costitutional law quiz 3 and final? I have a
2 years ago
Midterm CMRJ 303

Question 1 of 34   2.0 Points
Which of the following is considered to be the earliest complete legal code in existence?

   

   A. The Roman Law of the Twelve Tables   
   

   B. Egyptian law   
   

   C. the Latin law of mala prohibita   
    

   D. the Babylonian Code of Hammurabi   



Answer Key: D
Question 2 of 34   2.0 Points
According to Emile Durkheim, an act can be considered criminal if it violates or offends the

   

   A. criminal law.   
   

   B. civil law.   
    

   C. collective conscience.   
   

   D. natural law.   



Answer Key: C
Question 3 of 34   2.0 Points
The term "criminal justice system" is

   

   A. a term coined in 1887.   
    

   B. relatively new.   
   

   C. a European term.   
   

   D. synonymous with the term "criminology."   



Answer Key: B
Question 4 of 34   2.0 Points
Criminal justice generally focuses on all of the following areas except

   

   A. the just treatment of offenders.   
   

   B. the needs of victims.   
    

   C. crime.   
   

   D. the effect of sentencing philosophy.   



Answer Key: C
Question 5 of 34   2.0 Points
_______________ allows scientists to test hypotheses about how two or more variables are related.

    

   A. experimentation   
   

   B. case study   
   

   C. surveys   
   

   D. nonparticipant observation   



Answer Key: A
Question 6 of 34   2.0 Points
To learn how the causes of crime vary at different ages, Alfred Blumstein and his colleagues suggest that criminologists study

   

   A. age.   
   

   B. gender.   
   

   C. socioeconomic status.   
    

   D. criminal careers.   



Answer Key: D
Question 7 of 34   2.0 Points
According to the UCR, the arrest ratio of males to females is

   

   A. 10 to 1   
    

   B. 3 to 1   
   

   C. 2 to 1   
   

   D. the same   



Answer Key: B
Question 8 of 34   2.0 Points
Which one of the seven ingredients of crime requires that the actor achieve the result through his or her own effort?

   

   A. the act requirement   
   

   B. the legality requirement   
   

   C. the harm requirement   
    

   D. the causation requirement   



Answer Key: D
Question 9 of 34   2.0 Points
Cesare Lombroso argued that the "born criminal" was distinguishable by

   

   A. bumps on the head.   
   

   B. small jaws and teeth.   
    

   C. atavistic stigmata.   
   

   D. a large nose.   



Answer Key: C
Question 10 of 34   2.0 Points
According to Sheldon, which one of the somatotypes is most likely to be involved in illegal behavior?

   

   A. andromorph   
   

   B. ectomorph   
   

   C. endomorph   
    

   D. mesomorph   



Answer Key: D
Question 11 of 34   2.0 Points
Who is acknowledged as America's first forensic psychiatrist?

   

   A. Sigmund Freud   
   

   B. Philippe Pinel   
    

   C. Isaac Ray   
   

   D. Henry Maudsley   



Answer Key: C
Question 12 of 34   2.0 Points
In the United States, explanations of criminal behavior have been dominated by what type of theories?

   

   A. psychological   
   

   B. biological   
    

   C. sociological   
   

   D. philosophical   



Answer Key: C
Question 13 of 34   2.0 Points
According to studies of twins,

   

   A. there is no evidence that genetic factors explain criminality.   
    

   B. there is some support for the hypothesis that some genetic influences increase the risk of criminality.   
   

   C. there is a strong causal relationship between genetics and crime.   
   

   D. there has not been enough research comparing monozygotic twins to dizygotic twins to make any conclusions.   



Answer Key: B
Question 14 of 34   2.0 Points
Which of the following is not a biochemical factor?

   

   A. food allergies   
   

   B. hypoglycemia   
    

   C. brain lesions   
   

   D. hormones   



Answer Key: C
Question 15 of 34   2.0 Points
Durkheim's concept of anomie was intended to explain

   

   A. crime.   
   

   B. juvenile delinquency.   
    

   C. suicide   
   

   D. status offenses.   



Answer Key: C
Question 16 of 34   2.0 Points
Merton's theory of anomie emphasizes

   

   A. that anger helps justify aggressive behavior and stimulates individuals into action.   
    

   B. institutionalized means to attain the desired ends.   
   

   C. that people learn to commit crime as a result of antisocial values, attitudes, and criminal behavior patterns.   
   

   D. none of these   



Answer Key: B
Question 17 of 34   2.0 Points
Cultural deviance theorists argue that

    

   A. crime is most likely to occur among the lower social classes.   
   

   B. American society is made up of various groups and subgroups, each with its own standards of right and wrong.   
   

   C. people learn to commit crime as a result of contact with antisocial values, attitudes, and criminal behavior patterns.   
   

   D. crime is the result of social disorganization.   



Answer Key: B
Question 18 of 34   2.0 Points
According to Cohen, delinquent subcultures are rooted in all but which of the following?

    

   A. acceptance of violence as normal   
   

   B. class differentials in parental aspirations   
   

   C. child-rearing practices   
   

   D. classroom standards   



Answer Key: A
Question 19 of 34   2.0 Points
Which of the following does Cohen's theory not explain?

   

   A. the origin of delinquent behavior   
   

   B. why some youths raised in the same neighborhoods and attending the same schools do not become involved in delinquent subcultures   
   

   C. types of roles that lower-class boys adopt in response to status frustration and strain   
    

   D. why most delinquents become law-abiding individuals even though their position in the class structure remains relatively fixed   



Answer Key: D
Question 20 of 34   2.0 Points
Members of ___________ gangs are described as double failures because they have not been successful in the legitimate world and have been equally unsuccessful in the illegitimate worlds of organized criminal activity and violence-oriented gangs.

   

   A. conflict   
   

   B. criminal   
   

   C. innovation   
    

   D. retreatist   



Answer Key: D
Question 21 of 34   2.0 Points
Using nationwide data collected for the President's Commission on the Causes and Prevention of Violence, Howard Erlanger found

   

   A. major differences in attitudes toward violence by class.   
   

   B. major differences in attitudes toward violence by race.   
    

   C. no major differences in attitudes toward violence by class or race.   
   

   D. no major differences in attitudes toward violence by race and gender.   



Answer Key: C
Question 22 of 34   2.0 Points
A lower-class person's resentment of external controls, whether parents, teachers, or police, is related to what focal concern?

   

   A. toughness   
    

   B. autonomy   
   

   C. self-esteem   
   

   D. trouble   



Answer Key: B
Question 23 of 34   2.0 Points
One of the differences that Michael Hindelang found between his research and Hirschi's research is that there is

   

   A. no relationship between attachment to father and attachment to peers.   
   

   B. no relationship between attachment to church and attachment to peers.   
    

   C. no relationship between attachment to mother and attachment to peers.   
   

   D. no relationship between attachment to grandparents and attachment to peers.   



Answer Key: C
Question 24 of 34   2.0 Points
Labeling theorists are interested in all but which of the following?

   

   A. how certain acts are defined as criminal or deviant   
    

   B. why people commit crimes in the first place   
   

   C. why certain people are defined as criminal or deviant   
   

   D. why certain people have had criminal status conferred upon them by both the criminal justice system and the community at large   



Answer Key: B
Question 25 of 34   2.0 Points
Which theoretical perspective claims that a struggle for power is a basic feature of human existence?

   

   A. labeling   
    

   B. conflict   
   

   C. peacemaking   
   

   D. consensus   



Answer Key: B
Question 26 of 34   2.0 Points
The __________ model of lawmaking assumes that members of society by and large agree on what is right and wrong, and that law is the codification of these agreed-upon social values.

   

   A. conflict   
   

   B. radical   
    

   C. consensus   
   

   D. Marxist   



Answer Key: C
Question 27 of 34   2.0 Points
From the rational-choice perspective, characteristics fall into what two distinct categories?

   

   A. those of the offender and those of the victim   
   

   B. those of the victim and those of the offender   
    

   C. those of the offender and those of the offense   
   

   D. those of the offense and those of the sanction   



Answer Key: C
Question 28 of 34   2.0 Points
George Rengert and John Wasilichick conducted extensive interviews with __________ in an effort to understand their techniques.

   

   A. convicted rapists   
   

   B. street robbers   
   

   C. prostitutes   
    

   D. suburban burglars   



Answer Key: D
Question 29 of 34   2.0 Points
CPTED is the acronym for

   

   A. criminals protected through enforcement deception.   
   

   B. crime protection through enforcement design.   
    

   C. crime prevention through environmental design.   
   

   D. crime protest through enforcement departments.   



Answer Key: C
Question 30 of 34   2.0 Points
__________ is the commission of a quantitatively similar crime at a different time or place.

    

   A. Displacement   
   

   B. Relocation   
   

   C. Parallel offending   
   

   D. Comparative offending   



Answer Key: A
Question 31 of 34   10.0 Points
Discuss Gottfredson and Hirschi's general theory of crime, and then evaluate it.


Hirschi’s and Gottfredson refined the control theory that was presented by Hirschi earlier in his career. According to Hirschi and Gottfredson definition of crime, “acts of force or fraud undertaken in pursuit of self-interest.” Low self-control explains why an individual’s propensity to commit or refrain from committing crimes and just like high self-control explains an individual’s likelihood to conform to social norms and laws.
Hirschi and Gottfredson also “believe that the concept of self-control is not deterministic”. They state that people involved with crime also engage in similar behaviors that provide short-term gratification. Some of the examples they described are Smoking, drinking, gambling, irresponsible sex, and speeding in cars are among some of the behaviors that may be visible in criminal individuals who seek instant gratification. (Gottfredson and Hirschi, 1990)
Basically for this theory social bonds help deter against criminal behavior in favor of the proposition that self-control internalized early in life helps determine who will be more likely to commit a crime later in life. According to this theory individuals [children] that experience behavioral problems at a young age, will eventually tend to grow into juvenile delinquents and eventually into adult offenders. (Gottfredson and Hirschi 1990)
Hirschi and Gottfredson argue that the quality of parenting determines if an individual will grow up to be a criminal of a law abiding citizen. For example an individual [children] who is raced by parents who abused and neglected, most often will be impulsive, intensive and will tend to engage in criminal acts. While on the other hand, individuals [children] who are raised by parents or role models who care about them, supervise and correct misconduct, will learn and develop self-control needed to resist the temptations of crime.
I agree that parenting or good role modeling during a child’s really years has much impact with the way children developed into adulthood. I also believe that the socioeconomic background and social conditions can lead an individual to crime or law-breaking. For example if an individual is raised in the South-Side of Chicago [Englewood] neighborhood and all he/she sees is crime, more than likely, these children will grow up thinking that crime is normal and that it is the only way to survive. On the other hand, if an individual is raised in the North-Side of Chicago [ Lakeview] neighborhood, where most children attend private schools and participate in after school projects such as sports or after care programs; more than likely these children in this upper-middle class neighborhood will grow up to be law abiding citizens.
Ackerman, J. (n.d.). Criminology Theories. Retrieved February 27, 2012, from Two Major Theories of Travis Hirschi:
Adler, F., Mueller, G., & Laufer, W. (2009). Criminology, 7 edition. New York: McGraw Hill Companies.



Question 32 of 34   10.0 Points
Over the last decade a number of important critical perspectives have emerged, including radical feminist theory, left realism, abolitionist and anarchist criminology, and peacemaking criminology. Discuss three of these perspectives.


Radical Feminist Theory
Radical criminologists think that the cause of women committing crime is a form of rebellion against men’s attempt to control women and minimizing them in society. This theory has led to the “study of child sexual abuse, domestic violence and prostitution”.
According to researchers of radical theory, “prostitution is supported and hunted by sexual predators, and they believe such predators should be viewed as batters and not customers”. Margaret Farley states that prostitution is another form of male abusing females.
On the other hand Social Feminist predicts crime based on the females social class, race and gender. According to some of the theorist one of the strongest predictors of different types of women crimes such as rape is“absolute status”.
Absolute-Status which according to some theorist; they think that communities where females are educated and have good paying jobs are less likely to be targets of rape or other forms of crime. On the other hand women who come from low socioeconomic backgrounds are more likely to be targets of rape or other types of crime. Left Realism believes that the elite and the powerful [status-money] ignore the fact that lower class individuals are often the victims of crime. They think that radical criminologist have not developed strong and efficient crime control strategies. “They also think that crime is inescapable and is part of social and political depravation “.
According to left realism theorist four elements most be consider when addressing crime: “crime, the victim, the state and the general public”. They seek to protect all societies from crime and the fear of crime especially those from lower socioeconomic status.
Abolitionist and Anarchist, both dispute the amount of power or supremacy some societies or even government have. Abolitionist believes that the power should be given back to the people [communities-societies] in order for them to fix the power discrepancy in a civilize manner.
On the other hand Anarchist, according to the Webster Dictionary definition is: “a person who seeks to overturn by violence all constituted forms and institutions of society and government, with no purpose of establishing any other system of order in the place of that destroyed. “
Revolution is basically what Anarchist believes on, they believe that in order for changes to happen and for government to listen and pay attention violence is necessary.


Adler, F., Mueller, G., & Laufer, W. (2009). Criminology, 7 edition. New York: McGraw Hill Companies.
Dictionary/merriam-webster. (n.d.). Retrieved February 28, 2012, from Dictionary/merriam-webster:


Question 33 of 34   10.0 Points
Discuss the theories of victim-offender interaction of Wolfgang and Tedeschi and Felson.


Marvin Wolfgang is known as one of the most influential criminologist and with his analysis and study in Philadelphia in 1958. Wolfgang study homicides that happened in Philadelphia during the years of 1948 and 1952. The study was based on victim-offender relationships.
He was the first criminologist that was able to demonstrate empirically the significant role that alcohol plays in homicide. According to his study, about two-thirds of the cases he analyzed both the victim and the offender had been drinking prior to the event.
Wolfgang believed that in many occasions the victim was at fault for the attack that led to their murder. He coined the term “Victim precipitation”. Victim precipitation suggest that some people cause or initiate a particular confrontation that eventually may lead to that individuals becoming victimized by injury or death.
According to Siegel, (2006) the precipitation can either be active or passive. Active precipitation is when the victim knowingly acts in a provocative manner, uses offensive words or threats the may lead to fighting, or simply attacks first for example a bully in school. A bully often seeks trouble which in some occasions may lead in to fighting or someone getting hurt. In some cases of rape, some courts have presented not-guilty verdicts based upon whether or not the victim acted in any way that seemed to consent to sexual relations, or even the way the victim was dressed.
On the other hand passive precipitation occurs when the victim contains a characteristic that without him/her knowing motivates the attacker. For example two individuals who are interested in the same woman or man, or a promotion at work or in the football field may lead someone into committing a crime.
According to James Tedeschi and Richard Felson, they proposed that people knowingly commit crimes. They believe that people [attackers] are violent because they made a decision to be violent; often they have a definite goal in mind. They define an intentional action as an “act performed with the expectation that it will produce a proximate outcome of value to the actor”. (Tedeschi, Felson, 1994: 164) They also explain that the offenders tend to choose individuals who are smaller and weaker than they are.
Many criminologist such as those who study the Lifestyle theory believe that individuals who go out late at night or those who associate with individuals who used drugs or drink excessively [alcohol] have a greater exposure to crime there for have a greater chance on becoming a victim.
Adler, F., Mueller, G., & Laufer, W. (2009). Criminology, 7 edition. New York: McGraw Hill Companies.
Siegel, L. (2006). Criminology, 9 edition. Belmont, California: Thomson Wadsworth.
Silverman, R. A. (2004). Marvin Eugene Wolfgang. Procedings of the American Philosophical Society, Vol. 148, No. 4, 252.


Question 34 of 34   10.0 Points
Explain how the rational-choice theory provides the foundation for designing situational-crime-prevention techniques. Provide examples from the text.



The rational choice perspective is behavior that leads to an event that an individual or the offender decides the risk by violating [breaking] the law after considering his or her own personal situation. Before committing a crime the offender reasons and evaluates the risk of getting caught, the seriousness and expected punishment, the value of the criminal enterprise and his or her need to commit the criminal act.
Some of the considering factors are the individuals need for money, how well the target area is protected, how efficient the local police department is. As one can see is a premeditated act there is well thought and planned by the offender.
According to Adler, Mueller and Laufer, (2009), rational choice theory, “is not concerned with strategies of overall prevention, but it is concern with reducing the likelihood that any given offense will be committed by somebody involve in criminal activity”. (Adler, Mueller and Freda, 2009: 198)
There for according to the rational theory in order to deter crime, communities and individuals need to develop strategies to frustrate offenders and deter them from wanting to commit crimes. This can be achieved through policies that convince criminals to desist from criminal activities such as target hardening. Examples of target hardening are as follow: deadbolts, self-defense skills and neighborhood watch programs. Another way to deter criminals is through more severe legal punishment such as the three strikes and you are out law, death penalty or just more severe type of punishment when caught. (Siegel, 1992)
An example provide by Adler, Mueller and Laufer, (2009) is that research by David Weisburd, who found that “probationers in New Jersey randomly selected to face an increased risk of prison for nonpayment of fines were significantly more likely than controls to pay their fines”. (Pg-197) Other examples would be drunk-driving crack downs [surprise check points], special-gang related task forces and punishing those involve with gang affiliations or in the case of shoplifting, posting a sign stating that “shoplifters will be prosecuted to the fullest extent of the law”.
I other words, people will engage in criminal and deviant activities if they do not fear apprehension and punishment. Law makers and law enforcement officers need to design and implement laws and punishments that will instill fear in individuals [criminals] reducing the provability of deviance behaviors.

Adler, F., Mueller, G., & Laufer, W. (2009). Criminology, 7 edition. New York: McGraw Hill Companies.
Siegel, L. (1992). Criminology, 4th edition. Belford California: West Publishing.







   
   
   
   
   




Post Merge: 2 years ago


Last Edit: 2 years ago by gallos79 Report this PostReport Abuse
Reply# 18 Quote
jetman
Guest
anyone have the answers to AMU/APUS Costitutional law quiz 3 and final? I have a
2 years ago
CMRJ 310... Quiz 1, 2, 3, Mid Term, and Final

***Quiz 1***

Question 1 of 20 5.0 Points

The most frequently used drug in the stimulants category is: 
 A. Ecstasy 
 
 B. Cocaine 
 
 C. Caffeine 
 
 D. Amphetamines 



Answer Key: C
Question 2 of 20 5.0 Points

MDMA is also known as: 
 A. Ecstasy 
 
 B. Cocaine 
 
 C. Caffeine 
 
 D. Amphetamines 



Answer Key: A
Question 3 of 20 5.0 Points

The Drug Abuse Warning Network (DAWN) was established in 1992 by: 
 A. The Drug Enforcement Administration 
 
 B. The National Institute of Drug Abuse 
 
 C. The Office of National Drug Control Policy 
 
 D. The National Narcotics Intelligence Consumers Committee 



Answer Key: B
Question 4 of 20 5.0 Points

When taking in large amounts, cough medicines containing________ produce hallucinations and a "high" similar to that of PCP. 
 A. Codeine 
 
 B. DXM 
 
 C. Nembutal 
 
 D. Dexedrine 



Answer Key: B
Question 5 of 20 5.0 Points

The ______ Amendment initiated national prohibition. 
 A. 18th 
 
 B. 19th 
 
 C. 20th 
 
 D. 21st 



Answer Key: A
Question 6 of 20 5.0 Points

The _____ Act strengthened the amendment that enacted Prohibition. 
 A. Harrison 
 
 B. Tariff 
 
 C. Volstead 
 
 D. Pure Food and Drug 



Answer Key: C
Question 7 of 20 5.0 Points

Archeological evidence depicts opium use as early as: 
 A. 1500 B.C.E. 
 
 B. 2100 B.C.E. 
 
 C. 2500 B.C.E. 
 
 D. 3500 B.C.E. 



Answer Key: D
Question 8 of 20 5.0 Points

The first prohibition based drug legislation in the United States was: 
 A. The Harrison Narcotics Tax Act 
 
 B. A San Francisco ordinance prohibiting the operation of opium dens. 
 
 C. The Pure Food and Drug Act 
 
 D. The Volstead Act. 



Answer Key: B
Question 9 of 20 5.0 Points

Most long-term alcoholics suffer from Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, a deficiency in: 
 A. Thiamine (vitamin B1) 
 
 B. Fentanyl 
 
 C. Acetaldehyde 
 
 D. Glutamine 



Answer Key: A
Question 10 of 20 5.0 Points

___________ compounds are often sold as "China White," the street name for the finest Southeast Asian heroin, to addicts who cannot tell the difference. 
 A. Thiamine (vitamin B1) 
 
 B. Fentanyl 
 
 C. Acetaldehyde 
 
 D. Glutamine 



Answer Key: B
Question 11 of 20 5.0 Points

Benzodiazepines are referred to Pharmacologically as: 
 A. Agonists 
 
 B. Polydrugs 
 
 C. Sedative-hypnotics 
 
 D. Antagonists 



Answer Key: C
Question 12 of 20 5.0 Points

Analogs designed by underground chemists are known as: 
 A. Agnonists 
 
 B. Antagonists 
 
 C. Designer drugs 
 
 D. Agonist compounds 



Answer Key: C
Question 13 of 20 5.0 Points

In people who are highly extroverted, perhaps even manic, stimulants make more ________ available to the brain and are thus highly rewarding even in small doses, making such people susceptible to addiction. 
 A. Dopamine 
 
 B. Serotonin 
 
 C. Norepinephrine 
 
 D. Neurotransmitters 



Answer Key: A
Question 14 of 20 5.0 Points

Crack is made by cooking cocaine in a mixture of _________ and water. 
 A. Ether 
 
 B. Grain alcohol 
 
 C. Sodium bicarbonate (baking soda) 
 
 D. All of the above 



Answer Key: C
Question 15 of 20 5.0 Points

Cocaine users can suffer from a sensation similar to that of bugs crawling under the skin, a phenomenon known as: 
 A. "Cocaine bugs" 
 
 B. Magnon's syndrome 
 
 C. Formication 
 
 D. All of the above 



Answer Key: D
Question 16 of 20 5.0 Points

"The turkey bag method" is used to: 
 A. Melt methamphetamine to make ice rocks. 
 
 B. Cook cocaine mixed with talcum or lactose to make crack. 
 
 C. Synthesize amphetamines from a cocaine/lidocaine mix. 
 
 D. all of the above 



Answer Key: A
Question 17 of 20 5.0 Points

Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) was synthesized in: 
 A. 1938 
 
 B. 1947 
 
 C. 1953 
 
 D. 1964 



Answer Key: A
Question 18 of 20 5.0 Points

The first LSD "trip": 
 A. was accidental 
 
 B. occurred in 1943 
 
 C. was taken by LSD discoverer, Albert Hoffman 
 
 D. All of the above. 



Answer Key: D
Question 19 of 20 5.0 Points

Fewer than ____ percent of LSD users report recurring low-intensity trips-so-called flashbacks-without having ingested the substance recently. 
 A. 45 
 
 B. 35 
 
 C. 25 
 
 D. 15 



Answer Key: C
Question 20 of 20 5.0 Points

The immediate effects of inhalants are similar to those of: 
 A. Stimulants 
 
 B. Hallucinogens 
 
 C. marijuana 
 
 D. Alcohol 



Answer Key: D


**Quiz 2**

Question 1 of 20 5.0 Points

Increased sensitivity to the same or lesser dosage of drug over time is known as: 
 A. Reverse tolerance 
 
 B. Sensitization 
 
 C. Tolerance 
 
 D. Selective tolerance 



Answer Key: A
Question 2 of 20 5.0 Points

__________ moderates primitive drives while improving the ability to interact socially. 
 A. Serotonin 
 
 B. Norepinephrine 
 
 C. Dendrites 
 
 D. Dopamine 



Answer Key: A
Question 3 of 20 5.0 Points

________ can be depleted from the mesolimbic dopamine system through repeated use of cocaine or heroin. 
 A. Serotonin 
 
 B. Norepinephrine 
 
 C. Dendrites 
 
 D. Dopamine 



Answer Key: D
Question 4 of 20 5.0 Points

________ reuptake is inhibited by the medically prescribed anti-depressant Prozac (fluoxetine). 
 A. Serotonin 
 
 B. Norepinephrine 
 
 C. Dendrites 
 
 D. Dopamine 



Answer Key: A
Question 5 of 20 5.0 Points

Sociological Theory: 
 A. is concerned with social structures. 
 
 B. is concerned with social behavior. 
 
 C. examines drug use in its social context. 
 
 D. all of the above. 



Answer Key: D
Question 6 of 20 5.0 Points

According to social control theory, external restraints include: 
 A. social disapproval linked to public shame. 
 
 B. social ostracism. 
 
 C. fear of punishment. 
 
 D. all of the above. 



Answer Key: D
Question 7 of 20 5.0 Points

A study by Gue et al. found that ______ predicted an adolescent's risk of illicit drug initiation. 
 A. family monitoring and rules 
 
 B. family conflict 
 
 C. family bonding 
 
 D. all of the above 



Answer Key: D
Question 8 of 20 5.0 Points

______ risk factors for drug use include family conflict and disruption. 
 A. Cultural and societal 
 
 B. Interpersonal 
 
 C. Psychobehavioral 
 
 D. Biogenetic 



Answer Key: B
Question 9 of 20 5.0 Points

According to Freud, each person is born with powerful drives, wishes, urges, and psychic tension that are energized in the form of the: 
 A. id 
 
 B. ego 
 
 C. superego 
 
 D. libido 



Answer Key: D
Question 10 of 20 5.0 Points

Drug-dependent adolescents: 
 A. suffer severe ego inadequacies 
 
 B. are narcissistic 
 
 C. are apathetic 
 
 D. all of the above 



Answer Key: D
Question 11 of 20 5.0 Points

If the probability of a behavior goes up after the removal of a stimulus, then ________ has occurred. 
 A. classical conditioning 
 
 B. operant conditioning 
 
 C. positive reinforcement 
 
 D. negative reinforcement 



Answer Key: D
Question 12 of 20 5.0 Points

Psychoanalytic theories of drug abuse have been criticized for: 
 A. their reliance on retrospective self-reports. 
 
 B. their reliance on individual case studies. 
 
 C. limited methods that lack rigorous empirical grounding. 
 
 D. all of the above. 



Answer Key: D
Question 13 of 20 5.0 Points

Opiates were once presented as a cure for: 
 A. morphine addiction. 
 
 B. alcohol dependence 
 
 C. heroin addiction 
 
 D. cocaine addiction 



Answer Key: B
Question 14 of 20 5.0 Points

Methadone is: 
 A. a morphine derivative. 
 
 B. a wholly synthetic narcotic. 
 
 C. extracted from sea crustaceans. 
 
 D. both naturally and synthetically produced. 



Answer Key: B
Question 15 of 20 5.0 Points

________ helps clients resolve ambivalence about engaging in treatment and stopping drug use. 
 A. Motivational enhancement therapy 
 
 B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy 
 
 C. Individualized drug counseling 
 
 D. Supportive-expressive psychotherapy 



Answer Key: A
Question 16 of 20 5.0 Points

Cognitive approaches in general: 
 A. teach abusers to understand their cravings and to develop coping skills. 
 
 B. focus on the psychological causes of substance abuse. 
 
 C. are long-term approaches, typically lasting six to twelve months. 
 
 D. all of the above. 



Answer Key: A
Question 17 of 20 5.0 Points

N. Jones suggests that drug education often is ______ because it is not based on the educational principles that underlie the teaching of other subjects, and it tends to skew and censor information. 
 A. safe   
 
 B. ineffective 
 
 C. actually propaganda, not education 
 
 D. more political than educational 
 
 E. all of the above 



Answer Key: C
Question 18 of 20 5.0 Points

Wald and Hutt contend that drug education is rife with uncertainty and confusion because: 
 A. many educational efforts conflict with one another. 
 
 B. the views of those who present such programs differ significantly. 
 
 C. there is real evidence of success 
 
 D. there is no real evidence of success 



Answer Key: D
Question 19 of 20 5.0 Points

Although intended to frighten students away from dangerous substances, "scare" lectures often jeopardize all drug education efforts because: 
 A. they frequently contain misinformation or exaggeration. 
 
 B. informational inaccuracies in such lectures causes young people to believe they are being lied to. 
 
 C. they cause students to mistrust adult sources of information about drugs. 
 
 D. all of the above. 



Answer Key: D
Question 20 of 20 5.0 Points

Critics claim that drug use prevention programs: 
 A. are too often developed and implemented by well-meaning but limited people. 
 
 B. Often offer a simplistic approach to a complex problem. 
 
 C. are more enthusiastically assessed by school staff as being effective than the empirical data warrant. 
 
 D. all of the above 



Answer Key: D


**Quiz 3***


Question 1 of 20 5.0 Points

The U.S. Supreme Court established the exclusionary rule in: 
 A. Weeks v. United States (1914) 
 
 B. United States v. Sullivan (1927). 
 
 C. United States v. Verdugo-Urquidez (1990). 
 
 D. United States v. Alvarez Machain (1992). 



Answer Key: A
Question 2 of 20 5.0 Points

The U.S. Supreme Court ruled that kidnapping a suspect on foreign soil does not prevent the suspect from being tried in the United States in: 
 A. Weeks v. United States (1914) 
 
 B. United States v. Sullivan (1927). 
 
 C. United States v. Verdugo-Urquidez (1990) 
 
 D. United States v. Alvarez Machain (1992). 



Answer Key: D
Question 3 of 20 5.0 Points

The U.S. Supreme Court denied the claim of self-incrimination as an excuse for failure to file income tax on illegally gained earnings in: 
 A. Weeks v. United States (1914) 
 
 B. United States v. Sullivan (1927). 
 
 C. United States v. Verdugo-Urquidez (1990) 
 
 D. United States v. Alvarez Machain (1992). 



Answer Key: B
Question 4 of 20 5.0 Points

The U.S. Supreme Court held that constitutional protections do not obtain in U.S. government actions against foreign nationals on foreign soil in: 
 A. Weeks v. United States (1914) 
 
 B. United States v. Sullivan (1927). 
 
 C. United States v. Verdugo-Urquidez (1990) 
 
 D. United States v. Alvarez Machain (1992). 



Answer Key: C
Question 5 of 20 5.0 Points

The U.S. Supreme Court held that the government, under the Comprehensive Forfeiture Act, can freeze the assets of criminal defendants before trail in: 
 A. Richardson v. United States (1999) 
 
 B. Mapp v. Ohio (1961) 
 
 C. Caplin and Drysdale v. United States (1989) 
 
 D. Gideon v. Wainwright (1963) 



Answer Key: C
Question 6 of 20 5.0 Points

The U.S. Supreme Court found that during a routine traffic stop police may use a trained dog to sniff the car for drugs in: 
 A. Bennis v. Michigan (1996) 
 
 B. Indianapolis v. Edmond et al. (2000) 
 
 C. Illinois v. Caballes (2005) 
 
 D. United States v. Monsanto (1989) 



Answer Key: C
Question 7 of 20 5.0 Points

The U.S. Supreme Court determined that properly can be seized even when the owner was innocent of any wrongdoing in: 
 A. Bennis v. Michigan (1996) 
 
 B. Indianapolis v. Edmond, et al. (2000) 
 
 C. Illinois v. Caballes (2005) 
 
 D. United States v. Monsanto (1989) 



Answer Key: A
Question 8 of 20 5.0 Points

The Minnesota Supreme Court found unconstitutional and discriminatory against African Americans a state laws providing twenty years in prison for crack possession but only five years for possession of powdered cocaine in: 
 A. State v. Russell (1991). 
 
 B. Harmelin v. Michigan (1991) 
 
 C. Skinner v. Railway Labor Executives' Association (1989) 
 
 D. Vernonia School District v. Action (1995). 



Answer Key: A
Question 9 of 20 5.0 Points

The U.S. Supreme Court upheld the civil commitment of drug addicts for purposes of treatment (similar to commitment of the mentally ill ) in: 
 A. Board of Education v. Earls (2002). 
 
 B. Robinson v. California (1962) 
 
 C. National Treasury Employees Union v. von Raab (1989). 
 
 D. Argsbaugh v. Julliard (1984) 



Answer Key: B
Question 10 of 20 5.0 Points

Johnson and colleagues argue that: 
 A. drug treatment should be part of any sentence for convicted drug abusers. 
 
 B. postrelease treatment should be a condition of probation or parole. 
 
 C. monitoring of urine should be conducted for at least one year. 
 
 D. all of the above. 



Answer Key: D
Question 11 of 20 5.0 Points

The creation of an illegal drug market controlled by organized crime was the result of: 
 A. the existence of a huge profit opportunity. 
 
 B. the outlawing of addictive drugs. 
 
 C. the entrepreneurial ruthlessness of organized criminals. 
 
 D. all of the above. 



Answer Key: B
Question 12 of 20 5.0 Points

Opium and heroin smugglers and traffickers in Iran have been hanged at a rate of about ____ per year since 1988. 
 A. 200 
 
 B. 400 
 
 C. 600 
 
 D. 800 



Answer Key: C
Question 13 of 20 5.0 Points

A USA Today study revealed that African Americans are _______ as whites to be arrested on drug charges, even though both groups use drugs at about the same rate. 
 A. twice as likely 
 
 B. three times as likely 
 
 C. four times as likely 
 
 D. five times as likely 



Answer Key: C
Question 14 of 20 5.0 Points

A RAND Drug Policy Research Center report concluded that mandatory minimum prison sentences for low-level drug violators are not justifiable on the basis of: 
 A. cost-effectiveness 
 
 B. reduction of cocaine consumption 
 
 C. reduction of drug-related crime. 
 
 D. all of the above. 



Answer Key: D
Question 15 of 20 5.0 Points

The U.S. Mafia's monopoly on heroin distribution ends with the dismantling of the French Connection in: 
 A. 1963 
 
 B. 1968 
 
 C. 1972 
 
 D. 1977 



Answer Key: C
Question 16 of 20 5.0 Points

Although it originated as a Marxist militia, in more recent years FARC has resembled: 
 A. organized banditry 
 
 B. a national police force 
 
 C. a sophisticated national defense force 
 
 D. a disjointed street gang 



Answer Key: A
Question 17 of 20 5.0 Points

By 1999 Colombian heroin accounted for more than _______ percent of the drug smuggled into the East Coast. 
 A. 20 
 
 B. 40 
 
 C. 50 
 
 D. 70 



Answer Key: D
Question 18 of 20 5.0 Points

For decades, __________ sources supplied the heroin that was smuggled into the U.S. through the French port of Marseilles. 
 A. Lebanese 
 
 B. Corsican 
 
 C. Turkish 
 
 D. Italian 



Answer Key: B
Question 19 of 20 5.0 Points

Mexican organizations in the United States grow and harvest marijuana: 
 A. in rural areas of military reservations. 
 
 B. in national forests. 
 
 C. in rural forested lands along the west coast 
 
 D. primarily in Mississippi, Louisiana and eastern Texas 



Answer Key: B
Question 20 of 20 5.0 Points

The Golden Crescent of Southwest Asia includes: 
 A. Afghanistan, Pakistan, Turkmenistan, and parts of Iran 
 
 B. Afghanistan, Pakistan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. 
 
 C. Afghanistan, Pakistan, and parts of Iran 
 
 D. Pakistan, India, and parts of Iran 



Answer Key: C



***Mid Term***

Question 1 of 4 25.0 Points

Discuss how drug hysteria influences America's drug policy.


Question 2 of 4 25.0 Points

Discuss what the relationship between the development of the Harrison Act and a concern for federalism?

 
 
Question 3 of 4 25.0 Points

How does the concept of tolerance help to explain addiction?


Question 4 of 4 25.0 Points

What are the differences between the effects of cocaine hydrochloride and those of crack?
 
 
****FINAL***

Question 1 of 4 25.0 Points

Discuss why needle-exchange programs are so controversial. Are they effective?


Question 2 of 4 25.0 Points

Discuss the effectiveness of "scare tactics" to prevent drug abuse among children. Using DARE as a backdrop, discuss how effective this method of prevention is in addressing potential drug issues among youth.


Question 3 of 4 25.0 Points

Discuss the link between terrorism and drug trafficking. How significant is this problem?


Question 4 of 4 25.0 Points

Discuss attempts to reduce supply through criminal sanctions. Discuss the effectiveness of this method of reducing drug use through enforcement.





Report this PostReport Abuse
Reply# 19 Quote
Posts: 22
Points: 157
Rep:  +0  -0 
anyone have the answers to AMU/APUS Costitutional law quiz 3 and final? I have a
2 years ago
Can anyone help with LSTD400 Criminal Legal Process midterm/ finals or anything please>>>!!!


Report this PostReport Abuse
Reply# 20 Quote
Posts: 24
Points: 176
Rep:  +3  -0 
anyone have the answers to AMU/APUS Costitutional law quiz 3 and final? I have a
2 years ago
Criminal Legal Process Quiz 3

Question 1 of 20 5.0 Points

If prosecutors decide to charge a person arrested by the police, they do so by: 
 A. a. notifying by memo the judge who, if the case goes to trial, will probably preside. 
 
 B. b. notifying by memo the lawyer representing the accused. 
 
 C. c. filing a complaint, information, or indictment with the court. 
 
 D. d. notifying the accused by letter. 



Answer Key: C
Question 2 of 20 5.0 Points

In the Supreme Court case County of Riverside v. McLaughlin, involving a defendant who argued the state took too long to effectuate a judicial determination of probable cause after his warrantless arrest, the Court held that the test for determining if there has been a "prompt" judicial determination of probable cause is whether the arrestee was brought before a judicial officer: 
 A. a. without unreasonable delay, under all the circumstances. 
 
 B. b. within 36 hours of arrest, ordinarily. 
 
 C. c. within 48 hours of arrest, ordinarily. 
 
 D. d. within 24 hours of arrest, ordinarily. 



Answer Key: C
Question 3 of 20 5.0 Points

Although practices vary among jurisdictions, ordinarily an indigent accused is appointed an attorney: 
 A. a. by the police at time of arrest. 
 
 B. b. by a magistrate at the first appearance. 
 
 C. c. by a judge at the preliminary hearing. 
 
 D. d. by a judge at trial. 



Answer Key: B
Question 4 of 20 5.0 Points

According to the Supreme Court opinion in U.S. v. Salerno, involving the detention prior to trial of defendants due to the threat they posed to public safety: I. preventive detention is not punishment. II. detention prior to trial must be solely for the purpose of securing appearance at trial. III. when Congress has mandated detention on the basis of a compelling interest other than prevention of flight, the Eight Amendment does not require release on bail. IV. pretrial detention in the Bail Reform Act of 1984 violates the Eight Amendment. 
 A. a. I, II, III, IV 
 
 B. b. I, II, III 
 
 C. c. I, III 
 
 D. d. IV 



Answer Key: C
Question 5 of 20 5.0 Points

In Strickland v. Washington, the Supreme Court adopted which standard to evaluate the performance of defense counsel in a criminal case? 
 A. a. reasonably effective assistance 
 
 B. b. mockery of justice 
 
 C. c. reasonably competent attorney 
 
 D. d. reasonably educated attorney 



Answer Key: A
Question 6 of 20 5.0 Points

After grand jurors are sworn in, they are charged by the: 
 A. a. prosecutor. 
 
 B. b. judge. 
 
 C. c. clerk of court. 
 
 D. d. foreman. 



Answer Key: B
Question 7 of 20 5.0 Points

Preliminary hearings: I. are adversary proceedings. II. are open public proceedings. III. require the prosecutor to present evidence of the defendant's guilt. IV. permit the defense to present evidence. 
 A. a. I, II, III, IV 
 
 B. b. I, II, III 
 
 C. c. III 
 
 D. d. I, II 



Answer Key: A
Question 8 of 20 5.0 Points

The prohibition against double jeopardy prohibits all of the below, except: 
 A. a. a second prosecution for the same offense after conviction. 
 
 B. b. multiple punishments for the same offense. 
 
 C. c. a second prosecution for the same offense after acquittal. 
 
 D. d. multiple punishments for multiple crimes stemming from the same act(s). 



Answer Key: D
Question 9 of 20 5.0 Points

According to the Supreme Court, the size of a jury must be sufficiently large that it does all but what of the following? 
 A. a. promote group deliberation 
 
 B. b. economize wisely on the jury process costs 
 
 C. c. insulate members from outside intimidation 
 
 D. d. provide a representative cross-section of the community 



Answer Key: B
Question 10 of 20 5.0 Points

To have a valid guilty plea, a defendant who pleads guilty must: 
 A. a. acknowledge guilt. 
 
 B. b. know beforehand the exact sentence to be given. 
 
 C. c. do so voluntarily and knowingly. 
 
 D. d. agree he or she is factually guilty. 



Answer Key: C
Question 11 of 20 5.0 Points

The probable cause needed to detain and the probable cause needed to go to trial require the same amount of proof.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 12 of 20 5.0 Points

Felonies are more serious than misdemeanors.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 13 of 20 5.0 Points

Misdemeanor defendants commonly enter a plea at their first appearance.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 14 of 20 5.0 Points

Criminal defendants have an absolute right to bail guaranteed by the United States Constitution.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 15 of 20 5.0 Points

It is not double jeopardy to prosecute and punish a defendant for the same act in separate jurisdictions.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 16 of 20 5.0 Points

Both the state and defense may move for changes of venue.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 17 of 20 5.0 Points

If a defendant wishes to plead guilty, but still not admit guilt, states are constitutionally required to let the defendant do so.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 18 of 20 5.0 Points

Six person juries do not have to render unanimous verdicts.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 19 of 20 5.0 Points

The right to an impartial jury does not require that a jury be selected from a fair cross section of the community.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 20 of 20 5.0 Points

Six member juries satisfy the requirements of the Sixth Amendment.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True


Post Merge: 2 years ago
Criminal Legal Process Quiz 2

Question 1 of 20 5.0 Points

The reasonableness of searches pursuant to search warrants depends on I. the existence of probable cause. II. the extent of the search. III. the particularity of the warrant. IV. how the police enter the place to be searched. 
 A. a. I, III, IV 
 
 B. b. I, II, III, IV 
 
 C. c. I, II, IV 
 
 D. d. II, III, IV 



Answer Key: B
Question 2 of 20 5.0 Points

In Wilson v. Arkansas, the Supreme Court unanimously decided that: 
 A. a. the Fourth Amendment prohibits all "no-knock" entries. 
 
 B. b. the Fourth Amendment does not prohibit "no-knock" entries. 
 
 C. c. the police are never required to follow the rule of announcement when executing a search warrant. 
 
 D. d. ordinarily, the Fourth Amendment requires police knock and announce. 



Answer Key: D
Question 3 of 20 5.0 Points

According to the Supreme Court in Chimel v. California, involving the search of a house incident to an arrest for burglary of a coin shop: 
 A. a. it is not reasonable to search a person who is lawfully arrested. 
 
 B. b. it is not reasonable to search an entire house incident to a lawful arrest of someone there. 
 
 C. c. the Fourth Amendment does not protect searches incident to lawful arrests. 
 
 D. d. police must always have search warrants to search persons. 



Answer Key: B
Question 4 of 20 5.0 Points

In order to conduct a consent search of a person, an officer must have I. probable cause to believe the suspect has seizable items on his person. II. a valid warrant. III. probable cause to make a stop. IV. voluntary consent to search. 
 A. a. I, IV 
 
 B. b. I, II 
 
 C. c. III, IV 
 
 D. d. IV 



Answer Key: D
Question 5 of 20 5.0 Points

In Illinois v. Rodriguez (1990), the police conducted the consent search of the suspect's apartment based on the consent of the suspect's former girlfriend. According to the Supreme Court's opinion: 
 A. a. third party consent cannot be used to enter a person's home whether to make an arrest or search. 
 
 B. b. the third party giving consent to search must have actual authority over the premises. 
 
 C. c. the warrantless entry to search based on third party consent is valid if the officer reasonably believes that the person consenting had authority to consent. 
 
 D. d. search completed pursuant to an officer's reasonable but mistaken belief that a third party had authority to consent violates the Fourth Amendment. 



Answer Key: C
Question 6 of 20 5.0 Points

Police officers at the scene of a fire: I. do not need a warrant to remain in a burned building to look for injured victims. II. do not need a warrant to remain in a burned building to investigate the cause of the fire or explosion. III. must get a warrant to search for evidence of crime once they determine the cause of the fire. IV. can search suspicious onlookers without a warrant. 
 A. a. I, II, III, IV 
 
 B. b. I, II, III 
 
 C. c. I, III 
 
 D. d. IV 



Answer Key: B
Question 7 of 20 5.0 Points

With regard to border searches, the U.S. Supreme Court has found that: 
 A. a. any kind of border search can be made without any justification whatsoever. 
 
 B. b. strip searches must be justified by probable cause. 
 
 C. c. body cavity searches are never justified. 
 
 D. d. the national interest in controlling the nation's borders outweighs the invasion of privacy caused by routine border searches. 



Answer Key: D
Question 8 of 20 5.0 Points

Historically, before the second half of the Twentieth Century, U.S. prisoners: 
 A. a. had almost no rights under the Constitution. 
 
 B. b. have always been fully protected by the Constitution. 
 
 C. c. have been protected by the Constitution if they plead guilty. 
 
 D. d. have been protected by the Fourth Amendment in the privacy of their cells. 



Answer Key: A
Question 9 of 20 5.0 Points

According to research of police interrogations by sociologist Richard Leo: I. 75% of interrogated suspects invoke one or more of their Miranda rights in order to avoid cooperating. II. Detectives have become increasingly skilled in eliciting incriminating evidence during custodial interrogation. III. The majority of custodial interrogations last less than one hour. IV. Suspects who provide incriminating information are likely to be treated differently than suspects who do not provide incriminating information. 
 A. a. I, II, IV 
 
 B. b. II, IV 
 
 C. c. III, IV 
 
 D. d. III 



Answer Key: D
Question 10 of 20 5.0 Points

Which of the following constitutional provisions have been applied to all stages of interrogations and confessions? I. Fourteenth Amendment due process II. Eighth Amendment cruel and unusual punishments III. Sixth Amendment right-to-counsel IV. Fifth Amendment self incrimination 
 A. a. I, II, III, IV 
 
 B. b. I, III, IV 
 
 C. c. I 
 
 D. d. I, IV 



Answer Key: C
Question 11 of 20 5.0 Points

When a suspect is arrested in a car or other vehicle, police as part of the search incident to the arrest may search the vehicle's trunk
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 12 of 20 5.0 Points

Subjective intentions of the police play an important role in ordinary, probable cause Fourth Amendment analysis.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 13 of 20 5.0 Points

Inventory searches are not justified by the need to protect police from possible danger.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 14 of 20 5.0 Points

Urine testing of government employees for the presence of drugs is a search under the Fourth Amendment.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 15 of 20 5.0 Points

Criminal law enforcement is not the purpose of employee drug testing.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 16 of 20 5.0 Points

According to confessions and interrogation expert Professor Fred Inbau, police can solve many cases only if guilty persons confess.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 17 of 20 5.0 Points

According to research by sociologist Richard Leo, most police interrogations were coercive.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 18 of 20 5.0 Points

The right to counsel approach to confessions has never been accepted by a majority of the U.S. Supreme Court.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 19 of 20 5.0 Points

The Miranda decision required police to give Miranda warnings to suspects whenever they arrest them.
 
  True
 False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 20 of 20 5.0 Points

The Miranda v. Arizona decision is an attempt to establish a bright line rule to prevent police coercion in custodial interrogation.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True


Post Merge: 2 years ago
Criminal Legal Process Quiz 1

Question 1 of 20 5.0 Points

The search for the correct result essential to criminal procedure in a constitutional democracy means to: I. convict the guilty. II. plea bargain in weak cases. III. search for truth at any cost. IV. acquit the innocent. 
 A. I, II, III, IV 
 
 B. b. I, II, III 
 
 C. c. I 
 
 D. d. I, IV 



Answer Key: D
Question 2 of 20 5.0 Points

The trend today in balancing results and means in criminal justice: 
 A. a. continues to be strongly in favor of individual rights by emphasizing process (means). 
 
 B. b. has shifted away from process to results. 
 
 C. c. is impossible to determine because the Supreme Court has not made it clear. 
 
 D. d. is equally poised between process (means) and results. 



Answer Key: B
Question 3 of 20 5.0 Points

A brief description of the steps and judgments made by each court that has heard a case is called: 
 A. a. the courts' judgments 
 
 B. b. the courts' decisions 
 
 C. c. the courts' opinions 
 
 D. d. the procedural history of the case 



Answer Key: D
Question 4 of 20 5.0 Points

How a court disposes of a case is called: 
 A. a. the court's judgment 
 
 B. b. the court's opinion 
 
 C. c. the majority opinion 
 
 D. d. the case holding 



Answer Key: A
Question 5 of 20 5.0 Points

Courts explain why they decided a particular case the way it did in: 
 A. a. the judgment. 
 
 B. b. the opinion. 
 
 C. c. the decision. 
 
 D. d. facts. 



Answer Key: B
Question 6 of 20 5.0 Points

In the U.S. Supreme Court, certiorari: I. is discretionary. II. does not require the court to hear the appeal. III. is usually granted because a case raises an important constitutional issue affecting large numbers of individuals. IV. is usually granted to prevent punishment of the innocent 
 A. a. III 
 
 B. b. I, II 
 
 C. c. I, II, III 
 
 D. d. I, II, III, IV 



Answer Key: C
Question 7 of 20 5.0 Points

An appellate court ____ a trial court's judgment when it sets it aside. 
 A. a. reverses 
 
 B. b. affirms 
 
 C. c. remands 
 
 D. d. questions 



Answer Key: A
Question 8 of 20 5.0 Points

According to the Supreme Court in Powell v. Alabama, the famous "Scottsboro Case" of 1932 involving several black youths accused of raping two white girls on a train,: 
 A. a. the entire Bill of Rights applies to state criminal procedure. 
 
 B. b. the due process clause requires states to follow all of the federal government's rules of criminal procedure. 
 
 C. c. all criminal defendants are entitled to a lawyer in every criminal case free of charge. 
 
 D. d. in the severe circumstances of this case -- young, ignorant, illiterate defendants facing the death penalty in a hostile environment far from their family and friends -- the state was required under the federal Constitution to provide counsel for the defendants. 



Answer Key: D
Question 9 of 20 5.0 Points

Both the fundamental fairness and incorporation doctrines promote similar interests. Nonetheless, they differ in several respects. These differences include: I. they define due process differently. II. the extent and specificity to which they require uniform treatment by the states. III. incorporation doctrine promotes process interests in controlling government while fundamental fairness does not. IV. the fundamental fairness doctrine derives its meaning independent of the Bill of Rights while incorporation does not. 
 A. a. I 
 
 B. b. II, III 
 
 C. c. I, II, IV 
 
 D. d. I, II, III, IV 



Answer Key: C
Question 10 of 20 5.0 Points

Although he concurred with the result in Rochin v. California, Justice Black disagreed with the majority's approach to deciding what constitutes due process because: 
 A. a. he felt that the conviction should have stood. 
 
 B. b. he felt the majority's approach gave individual justices too much leeway to enforce their own notions of justice on the states. 
 
 C. c. he felt it was too rigid and unbending. 
 
 D. d. he felt the Court had no business reviewing state court convictions. 



Answer Key: B
Question 11 of 20 5.0 Points

According to the interest in fact-finding and the search for truth, the greater the deprivation the decision imposes, the greater the factual foundation required to support it.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 12 of 20 5.0 Points

The due process revolution was led by the Burger Court.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 13 of 20 5.0 Points

The due process revolution increased the power of the police in America.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 14 of 20 5.0 Points

The Constitution always binds the government.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 15 of 20 5.0 Points

The United States Supreme Court has no authority to interpret state constitution as long as state constitutional provisions and the decisions interpreting them meet the standards set by the United States Constitution.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 16 of 20 5.0 Points

The fear of fascism and the rise of Nazi Germany did not revive the historical fears Americans had of arbitrary government.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 17 of 20 5.0 Points

In Powell v. Alabama, the 1932 Supreme Court decision involving several black youths accused of raping two white girls on a train, the court ruled that the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment requires states to provide the rudiments of a fair trial -- fundamental fairness.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 18 of 20 5.0 Points

According to the Fundamental Fairness Doctrine, due process is a general command, requiring states to provide the rudiments of a fair trial.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 19 of 20 5.0 Points

The total incorporation doctrine has been accepted by the majority of the Supreme Court.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 20 of 20 5.0 Points

Equal protection of the law means that states must treat everybody alike.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False


Post Merge: 2 years ago
Criminal Legal Process Midterm

Question 1 of 30 2.5 Points

In a constitutional democracy, when enforcing the criminal law: 
 A. a. officials are restricted by the law of criminal procedure. 
 
 B. b. officials are restricted by the legislature. 
 
 C. c. officials are restricted by popular opinion. 
 
 D. d. officials have wide latitude to decide what actions to take. 



Answer Key: A
Question 2 of 30 2.5 Points

A petition for a writ of habeas corpus: I. is a continuation of the original criminal case. II. is a civil action. III. reviews the constitutionality of a petitioner's detention. IV. is another form of appeal. 
 A. a. I, III 
 
 B. b. III, IV 
 
 C. c. II, III 
 
 D. d. IV 



Answer Key: C
Question 3 of 30 2.5 Points

The term "due process revolution" refers to: 
 A. a. the Supreme Court's expansion of individual rights in the 1960s. 
 
 B. b. the Civil unrest that swept the U.S. in the 1960s. 
 
 C. c. the passage of the Fourteenth Amendment. 
 
 D. d. the adoption of the fundamental fairness doctrine by the Court in the 1930s. 



Answer Key: A
Question 4 of 30 2.5 Points

In Hurtado v. California (1884), involving the murder by Hurtado of his wife's lover, the Supreme Court ruled that the Fourteenth Amendment due process clause: 
 A. a. requires jury trials in all state courts. 
 
 B. b. requires states to provide a grand jury indictment in capital cases. 
 
 C. c. does not forbid states to use the death penalty because it does not define defendants of a "fundamental right" in capital cases. 
 
 D. d. does not require states to provide a grand jury indictment in capital cases. 



Answer Key: D
Question 5 of 30 2.5 Points

Selective incorporation means: 
 A. a. the state legislatures can select which provisions in the Bill of Rights to incorporate. 
 
 B. b. only some of the Bill of Rights are incorporated into the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. 
 
 C. c. only the Fourth and Fifth Amendments are incorporated into the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. 
 
 D. d. state supreme courts shall decide which provisions in the Bill of Rights their states should incorporate 



Answer Key: B
Question 6 of 30 2.5 Points

According to the Supreme Court in Katz v. U.S., involving the use of an electronic listening device on the outside of a public telephone booth by the police: I. the Fourth Amendment did not create a general constitutional right to privacy. II. protection of a person's general right to privacy is left largely to the law of the individual states. III. what a person knowingly exposes to the public is not subject to Fourth Amendment protection. IV. what a person seeks to preserve as private, even in an area accessible to the public, may be constitutionally protected. 
 A. a. I, II, III, IV 
 
 B. b. I, III 
 
 C. c. II, III, IV 
 
 D. d. IV 



Answer Key: A
Question 7 of 30 2.5 Points

An officer who smells marijuana as he drives by a car with an open window: 
 A. a. cannot compel the driver to stop the car so he can investigate without a warrant. 
 
 B. b. is limited to noting the license plate number of the vehicle and initiating a stake-out of the owner's home in order to gather additional evidence. 
 
 C. c. is authorized to stop the car to investigate without a warrant or probable cause because it is a plain search and outside the scope of the Fourth Amendment. 
 
 D. d. is authorized to stop and investigate because he has probable cause under the Fourth Amendment. 



Answer Key: C
Question 8 of 30 2.5 Points

Which of the following places is/are not likely to be considered part of the curtilage? I. garages II. pools III. warehouses on the same property IV. porches 
 A. a. I, II, IV 
 
 B. b. II, IV 
 
 C. c. III 
 
 D. d. I 



Answer Key: C
Question 9 of 30 2.5 Points

Examples of direct evidence that police can use to build probable cause include: I. tip from a reliable informant. II. DNA profile. III. suspect fleeing an officer. IV. suspect making furtive movements. 
 A. a. II, III, IV 
 
 B. b. III, IV 
 
 C. c. II 
 
 D. d. II, III 



Answer Key: A
Question 10 of 30 2.5 Points

The major issue of contention between the Supreme Court majority opinion and the dissenting opinion in Schneckloth v. Bustamonte, the case involving the consent search of the defendant's car, was: 
 A. a. whether consent to search was actually obtained by the officers. 
 
 B. b. whether the initial stop of the defendant's car was lawful. 
 
 C. c. the coercion of the defendant to obtain the consent. 
 
 D. d. whether the police must inform a suspect of her right to refuse consent to a consent search. 



Answer Key: D
Question 11 of 30 2.5 Points

In Colorado v. Bertine (1987), the police conducted an inventory search in which they searched Bertine's backpack after arresting him for driving under the influence of alcohol. The Supreme Court decided that: 
 A. a. the search of the backpack violated the U.S. Constitution. 
 
 B. b. the search of the backpack did not violate the U.S. Constitution because it was a legitimate inventory search. 
 
 C. c. the search of the backpack violated the U.S. Constitution because it was conducted on a suspicion that drugs were in Bertine's backpack. 
 
 D. d. the search of the backpack did not violate the U.S. Constitution because drugs were discovered in Bertine's backpack. 



Answer Key: B
Question 12 of 30 2.5 Points

According to the Supreme Court, in order to conduct a routine search at the border, officers need: 
 A. a. probable cause. 
 
 B. b. a warrant. 
 
 C. c. reasonable suspicion. 
 
 D. d. none of the choices. 



Answer Key: D
Question 13 of 30 2.5 Points

A special need that justifies airport searches is: 
 A. a. protection of endangered species. 
 
 B. b. protection of public health. 
 
 C. c. protection from drug smuggling. 
 
 D. d. protection for air travelers. 



Answer Key: D
Question 14 of 30 2.5 Points

In National Treasury Employees Union v. Raub, concerning a Customs Service drug testing program, the Supreme Court: 
 A. a. upheld the entire Customs Service testing program. 
 
 B. b. upheld only the testing of employees who carried weapons. 
 
 C. c. did not uphold any of the program. 
 
 D. d. held that part of the program requiring testing of all employees who handled classified material was unconstitutional. 



Answer Key: D
Question 15 of 30 2.5 Points

A habeas corpus proceeding is not a separate proceeding from a defendant's criminal case.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 16 of 30 2.5 Points

The greater the limit government imposes on the rights of an individual to come and go, the greater and the more facts needed to justify the limitation.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 17 of 30 2.5 Points

The Constitution is a different type of document than a statute, because it expresses the will of the people as a whole.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 18 of 30 2.5 Points

Some state constitutions provide rights not mentioned in the U.S. Constitution
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 19 of 30 2.5 Points

According to the Supreme Court opinion in California v. Greenwood involving incriminating evidence found in defendant's trash, citizens have a reasonable expectation of privacy in their trash.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 20 of 30 2.5 Points

Police officers can automatically frisk all citizens whom they stop.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 21 of 30 2.5 Points

The sole purpose of a frisk is to protect officers from death or injury.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 22 of 30 2.5 Points

An officer conducting a protective pat-down search can never seize any items other than weapons.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 23 of 30 2.5 Points

Police can never arrest someone for a non-serious traffic offense.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 24 of 30 2.5 Points

In Draper v. United States, the Supreme Court found that information that may not be admissible at trial to prove guilt could still be used to establish probable cause.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 25 of 30 2.5 Points

Probable cause alone is not enough to make an arrest a reasonable Fourth Amendment seizure.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 26 of 30 2.5 Points

Unless the police are in hot pursuit of a suspect, the Fourth Amendment usually requires a warrant to enter a private home to make arrests.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 27 of 30 2.5 Points

Most searches take place pursuant to warrants.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 28 of 30 2.5 Points

Probationers and parolees have diminished Fourth Amendment rights.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 29 of 30 15.0 Points

Briefly trace the history of due process from the adoption of the U.S. Constitution to the present.
The basic idea known as due process was represented in the Due Process Clause finds its roots in the English document Magna Carta of 1215. This document first codified that the monarch must obey written laws or be punished by his subjects.

Magna Carta was revised several times over the years. In a 1354 edition, the phrase “due process of law “was used for the first time. The idea presented in both of these clauses, and repeated by the Founding Fathers in the Bill of Rights' Fifth Amendment, is that the government can only punish a person based on written laws. If the government officials were allowed to act according to their own will and make up any decisions they wanted, they could put people in prison who disagreed with them, or punish them in other ways. This is how monarchies existed throughout all of history, until the concept of written constitutions came along. Monarchs could make up rules at will and no one would even know he was violating the monarch's will until he was pulled into court or thrown in prison. The monarch's will was absolute. With the development of written constitutions, this arbitrary and capricious punishing of people was greatly reduced and people were treated more fairly.



In the thirteen colonies, the terms "law of the land" and "due process" were pretty much used interchangeably. They referred to the fact that officials could only take away people's rights, goods, lands, life or freedom according to written and established laws. In short, the accused must be granted what is "due" him, meaning his right to have a fair legal process and not an arbitrary one created on the spot by the whims of the officials involved. The principles embodied in the Due Process Clause were widely held by the time the 5th Amendment was added to the Constitution in the Bill of Rights. By this time, eight states already had due process clauses in their constitutions. As the states debated whether or not to ratify the Constitution, many people spoke out against it saying it did not protect individual rights strongly enough. Members of the Anti-Federalist Party were persuaded to accept the Constitution on the condition that a Bill of Rights would be added to it in the First Congress. A Bill of Rights is a list of specifically defined rights that are guaranteed to the people. Consequently, many states sent Congress a list of suggested amendments to add into the Bill of Rights. After the Civil War, the 14th Amendment was added to the Constitution, which included a Due Process Clause that was aimed specifically at the States.





Wasserman, R. (2004). Procedural due process: a reference guide to the US Constitution. West Port, CT: Praeger Publisher.



Revolutionary War and Beyond. (2012). Retrieved from





Comment:  From the passage of the Constitution to the Civil War, criminal justice was considered a local affair. The Bill of Rights extended protection against only the federal, not state, government. The Fourteenth Amendment's due process clause changed that.

Courts, however, defined due process differently. Some decisions emphasized procedural due process, contending that due process guarantees fair procedures for deciding cases. The question then became which fair procedures are guaranteed. The Bill of Rights lists several. Were they due process guarantees?

Experts differed. Some claimed the Bill of Rights codified a specific list of procedures to protect people against governmental excesses and the Fourteenth Amendment requires all these procedures apply to the states.

Others claimed that if due process was shorthand for the Bill of Rights, the Fourteenth Amendment due process clause is wasted language, because the Fifth Amendment already includes a due process clause. They the meaning of due process should evolve to meet the needs of an ever-changing society.

Until the 1930s, the Supreme Court refused to apply the Fourteenth Amendment due process clause to state criminal proceedings. After World War I came the rise of totalitarian governments in the late 1920s and 1930s which gave rise to American suspicions of arbitrary government. In 1932, the U. S. Supreme Court ruled in Powell v. Alabama that the state of Alabama had denied the defendants due process during their trial. In Brown v. Mississippi (1936), the Court ruled the defendants were denied due process when confessions obtained by brutality and torture were used against them.

These two cases established the fundamental fairness doctrine. According to this doctrine, due process commands states to provide the basics of a fair trial. These include (1) giving defendants notice of the charges against them and (2) assuring a full hearing before conviction. However, even after these two cases, the Supreme Court refused to hold that the Bill of Rights now automatically applies to state criminal justice.

During the 1940s and 1950s, all the Justices agreed the Bill of Rights imposes limits on state criminal procedures, but they disagreed about what those limits are. This view was opposed by Justices who believed in the total incorporation doctrine. They believed that all the provisions of the Bill of Rights should be incorporated through the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment and applied to state criminal justice proceedings. A third approach, selective incorporation, took a middle ground. Under this doctrine, some rights in the Bill of Rights should be incorporated through the Fourteenth Amendment and others should not. This doctrine was adopted by the Court in the 1960s. Gradually, on a case-by-case basis, most of the protections of the Bill of Rights were selectively incorporated and applied to the states.
 
 
 
Question 30 of 30 15.0 Points

Compare the trespass doctrine with the privacy doctrine in defining Fourth Amendment searches.
The Fourth Amendment is the ensure the government does not obtain evidence illegally. The trespass doctrine provides amount to a search officer had to invade physically a constitutionally protected areas, that is person, houses, paper and effect. The trespass doctrine was replaced by the privacy doctrine, which was said to protect people, not places (Justice Potter Stewart) to comfort the question; I can imply the trespass doctrine is the expectation of privacy depends almost always where people expect privacy. Until 1967, the U.S. Supreme Court defined searches according to what was then the trespass doctrine. This meant that officers had to physically invade a “constitutionally protected area,” such as: Persons, Houses, Papers and Effects. In 1967, the U.S. Supreme Court replaced the trespass doctrine with the privacy doctrine. This is a two-pronged expectation-of-privacy test: Subjective privacy: Did the person exhibit an actual personal expectation of privacy? Objective privacy: Is society prepared to recognize the privacy as reasonable? Prior to Katz v. U.S. (1967), privacy was defined in terms of the trespass doctrine, but since then, a "reasonable expectation of privacy" doctrine has prevailed. Only what people themselves deem "private" and what society recognizes as private are protected. The Fourth Amendment does NOT protect against all invasions of privacy; it only forbids unreasonable searches and seizures.

Search and Seizure: A Guide to rules, requirements, test, doctrines, and exceptions. (2003). Retrieved from





Comment:  Until the late 1960s, the Supreme Court defined searches under what was called the Trespass Doctrine. According to this doctrine, to be a search, officers had to physically invade a "constitutionally protected area." Constitutionally protected areas were the places named specifically in the Fourth Amendment: persons, houses, papers, and effects. Nontangible items not falling within the places named in the Fourth Amendment were not protected under the Trespass Doctrine.

In 1967, the Trespass Doctrine was replaced with the Privacy Doctrine. According to this doctrine, the Fourth Amendment protects persons, not places, whenever the persons have an expectation of privacy that society is prepared to recognize as reasonable. Thus, under this doctrine, the Supreme Court decided that a telephone conversation could be the subject of an unreasonable search and seizure, a position previously rejected by the Trespass Doctrine.
 
 


Post Merge: 2 years ago
Criminal Legal Process Final Exam

Question 1 of 30 2.5 Points

The main reasons for misidentification include: I. the brain does not record accurately what the eye sees. II. the police may use improper suggestive identification measures. III. memory loss between the original event and the identification procedure. IV. look-alike suspects. V. recall. 
 A. a. I, II, III, IV, V 
 
 B. b. I, II, III, V 
 
 C. c. II 
 
 D. d. II, III, IV, V 



Answer Key: B
Question 2 of 30 2.5 Points

____ lineups reduce the power of suggestion and reduce the possibility that the witness will pick the person who most resembles the perpetrator: 
 A. a. Sequential 
 
 B. b. Simultaneous 
 
 C. c. Blind 
 
 D. d. Photo 



Answer Key: A
Question 3 of 30 2.5 Points

In using deterrence as the justification for excluding valid evidence, the Court weighs: 
 A. a. the evidence of guilt against nature of the constitutional violation. 
 
 B. b. the social costs against the deterrent effect. 
 
 C. c. a and b 
 
 D. d. neither a nor b 



Answer Key: B
Question 4 of 30 2.5 Points

Which doctrine holds that illegally seized evidence can be introduced a trial if the officials' law breaking behavior did not cause the seizure of the evidence? 
 A. a. the attenuation exception 
 
 B. b. the independent source exception 
 
 C. c. the inevitable discovery exception 
 
 D. d. the fruit of the poisonous tree exception 



Answer Key: B
Question 5 of 30 2.5 Points

The deterrence rationale for the exclusionary rule: 
 A. a. is based on the idea that courts need to be discouraged from using illegally seized evidence. 
 
 B. b. is concerned with deterring judges who issue bad warrants. 
 
 C. c. is no longer the primary justification for the rule. 
 
 D. d. is based on the belief that excluding good evidence because it was illegally obtained send a message to law enforcement. 



Answer Key: D
Question 6 of 30 2.5 Points

In Weeks v. U.S., a 1914 case involving the illegal entry and search of a home, the Supreme Court: I. reversed Week's conviction. II. made the U.S. unique in excluding good evidence from court because of the manner in which it was seized. III. applied the exclusionary to both federal and state law enforcement. IV. applied the exclusionary only to gambling cases. 
 A. a. I, II, III, IV 
 
 B. b. I, II, IV 
 
 C. c. I, II 
 
 D. d. I 



Answer Key: C
Question 7 of 30 2.5 Points

According to Pinder v. Johnson, involving a lawsuit by a mother against police officers and others for the death of her children in a fire: 
 A. a. the due process clauses create an official duty to protect life. 
 
 B. b. a duty to protect life can arise when the state restrains citizens from acting on their own behalf. 
 
 C. c. an affirmative duty to protect life can never arise on the part of government officials. 
 
 D. d. government action can never create a duty to protect life. 



Answer Key: B
Question 8 of 30 2.5 Points

People who sue the government or its officers under section 1983: 
 A. a. are usually successful. 
 
 B. b. are usually successful if the violation was extreme. 
 
 C. c. are rarely successful. 
 
 D. d. are usually successful because juries do not believe police officers tell the truth. 



Answer Key: C
Question 9 of 30 2.5 Points

Internal review of police misconduct involves: 
 A. a. review of misconduct by civilians. 
 
 B. b. review of misconduct by a special team of officers in the department. 
 
 C. c. review by a special master appointed by the court. 
 
 D. d. review by officers in another police department. 



Answer Key: B
Question 10 of 30 2.5 Points

After grand jurors are sworn in, they are charged by the: 
 A. a. prosecutor. 
 
 B. b. judge. 
 
 C. c. clerk of court. 
 
 D. d. foreman. 



Answer Key: B
Question 11 of 30 2.5 Points

The prohibition against double jeopardy attaches: 
 A. a. at arrest. 
 
 B. b. after indictment or being bound over following a preliminary hearing. 
 
 C. c. when the first witness testifies. 
 
 D. d. at different times for judge and jury trials. 



Answer Key: D
Question 12 of 30 2.5 Points

If a defendant's constitutional right to a speedy trial is violated: 
 A. a. the charges against the defendant are dismissed. 
 
 B. b. the time the defendant spent in jail awaiting trial is deducted from his sentence. 
 
 C. c. the court determines the point at which the trial should have commenced and deducts from the sentence the period of time between then and the date the trial actually started. 
 
 D. d. the prosecution must go back to the grand jury stage and start all over. 



Answer Key: A
Question 13 of 30 2.5 Points

Concerning the functioning of twelve (12) member juries, social scientists have found: 
 A. a. that twelve member juries obtain less reliable verdicts than smaller juries. 
 
 B. b. that twelve member juries don't represent the community. 
 
 C. c. that there is no difference in the reliability of verdicts between twelve member and smaller juries. 
 
 D. d. juries with twelve (12) members are right more often.   



Answer Key: D
Question 14 of 30 2.5 Points

Defendants have the right under the Sixth Amendment to force witnesses to come to court to testify for them. This is called: 
 A. a. cross-examination. 
 
 B. b. direct examination. 
 
 C. c. the right to compel testimony. 
 
 D. d. compulsory process. 



Answer Key: D
Question 15 of 30 2.5 Points

Recent research into the exclusionary rule has demonstrated that the deterrent effects are considerable.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 16 of 30 2.5 Points

The Supreme Court has held that the manner in which a defendant comes before the court may affect the government's ability to try the accused.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 17 of 30 2.5 Points

Officials who violate the Fourth Amendment by conducting an illegal search cannot receive qualified immunity for their actions.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 18 of 30 2.5 Points

Suing governmental bodies under Section 1983 is more complicated than suing individuals.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 19 of 30 2.5 Points

A defendant's motion to change venue does not waive the right to be tried in the state and district where the crime was located.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 20 of 30 2.5 Points

All dismissals because of speedy trial violations are with prejudice.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 21 of 30 2.5 Points

A valid plea cannot be assumed from a silent record.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 22 of 30 2.5 Points

Defendants may not be required to come to court in prison clothes.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 23 of 30 2.5 Points

Throughout history, fixed sentences have totally dominated criminal sentencing.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 24 of 30 2.5 Points

Justices on the U.S. Supreme Court are divided on whether the proportionality principle applies to sentences of imprisonment.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 25 of 30 2.5 Points

A defendant's youthful age at the time he committed a murder is considered an aggravating factor in most death penalty sentencing statutes.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 26 of 30 2.5 Points

The jurisdiction of military commissions applies only to noncitizens.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 27 of 30 2.5 Points

The libraries provision of The Patriot Act is not controversial and is supported by law enforcement officials and civil libertarians.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: False
Question 28 of 30 2.5 Points

The federal government has disbanded the terrorist surveillance program.
 
  A. True
 B. False
 



Answer Key: True
Question 29 of 30 15.0 Points

Identify and describe the significance of the three sources that have affected the balance between security and rights in the detention of terrorist suspects since 9/11.
(1) Surveillance - a 3 tiered system was establish to balance government power and individual privacy in government surveillance.



(2) search and seizure -Sneak and peek searches can be used as a variation of the no knock entries. Sneak and peek search warrants allow officers to enter private places without the owner or (occupant) consenting or even knowing about it.



(3) Detention - Since 9/11, President Bush declared a "national emergency by reason of certain terrorist attacks" in Presidential Proclamation 7463. With this detention regime, it is declared that most of the detainees captured in the war in Afghanistan were unlawful enemy combatants.





Samaha, J. (2008). Criminal procedure. Wadsworth, Cengage Learning. Belmont, CA.

Comment:  Since 9/11, three official acts document the changes in the balance between preserving national security and the rights of individuals to come and go as they please. These three acts are: one, Presidential Proclamation 7463; two, Congressional "Authorization for Use of Military Force;" and three, the president's military order of November 13, 2001 ("Detention, Treatment, and Trial of Certain Non-Citizens in the War Against Terrorism"). Presidential Proclamation 7463 declared a "national emergency by reason of certain terrorist attacks." That same day, Congress threw its weight behind the president's war powers in a joint resolution, "Authorization for Use of Military Force." Finally, President Bush issued the Military Order of November 13, 2001 to establish military commissions for the trial of non-citizens accused of engaging in terrorist activities.
 
 
Question 30 of 30 15.0 Points

Identify two elements plaintiffs in §1983 actions against state and local law enforcement officers have to prove. Identify and describe two limits placed by the U.S. Supreme Court in §1983 actions against state and local officers.
(1). Officers either acted according to written policies, statements, ordinances, regulations, or decisions approved by authorized official bodies or to unwritten custom.

(2). The action caused the violation of the plaintiff's constitutional right(s).



(1) No affirmative duty to protect rule - plaintiffs can't sue individual officers or government units for failing to stop private people from violating their rights by inflicting injuries on them.

(2) Special relationship exception - when the government takes it upon itself to put people in jail, prison, or mental institutions against their will and keeps them, its cruel and unusual punishment to fail to protect them when they can't protect themselves.

Samaha, J. (2008). Criminal procedure. Wadsworth, Cengage Learning. Belmont, CA.

Comment:  In a §1983 action against state and local law enforcement officers, the plaintiffs must prove two elements. First, plaintiffs must prove that the officials acted "under color of state law," which includes all acts done within the scope of the officers' employment. Second, the officers' actions must have caused the deprivation of plaintiff's federal rights.

Besides the two statutory elements that plaintiffs must prove in a §1983 action the U.S. Supreme Court has added two more. First, plaintiffs cannot recover for accidental or even negligent violations of their federal civil rights. The law enforcement officers' violations must be deliberate. Second, state and local officers are protected by the same qualified immunity under §1983 that federal officers have under Bivens and the Federal Tort Claims Act.
 
 


Post Merge: 2 years ago
I posted Criminal Legal Process Quizzes and Test

http://biology-forums.com/index.php?topic=19895.14


Last Edit: 2 years ago by Boobah Report this PostReport Abuse
Reply# 21 Quote
Posts: 22
Points: 157
Rep:  +0  -0 
anyone have the answers to AMU/APUS Costitutional law quiz 3 and final? I have a
2 years ago
Thanks so much Boobah, if you ever need something, do not hesitate to hit me up. Thanks a million!!!

Post Merge: 2 years ago
By any chance you wouldn't happen to have quiz/midterm or final for CMRJ316 Corrections and Incarceration??


Last Edit: 2 years ago by cuaz29 Report this PostReport Abuse
Reply# 22 Quote
Posts: 24
Points: 176
Rep:  +3  -0 
anyone have the answers to AMU/APUS Costitutional law quiz 3 and final? I have a
2 years ago
No my focus is forensic science.


Report this PostReport Abuse
Reply# 23 Quote
Stevbo
Guest
anyone have the answers to AMU/APUS Costitutional law quiz 3 and final? I have a
2 years ago
Does anyone happen to have test and quizes for the following APU/AMU classes?

LSTD 207 Civil Practice and Procedure
LSTD 201 Litigation
LSTD 202 Real Estate Law

Any information would help, thanks!


Report this PostReport Abuse
Reply# 24 Quote
Posts: 24
Points: 80
Rep:  +0  -0 
anyone have the answers to AMU/APUS Costitutional law quiz 3 and final? I have a
2 years ago
Does anyone happen to have test and quizes for the following APU/AMU classes?

LSTD 207 Civil Practice and Procedure
LSTD 201 Litigation
LSTD 202 Real Estate Law

Any information would help, thanks!


Report this PostReport Abuse
Reply# 25 Quote
Posts: 6
Points: 66
Rep:  +0  -0 
anyone have the answers to AMU/APUS Costitutional law quiz 3 and final? I have a
2 years ago
Hey do have all of the Quiz Midterm and  Final for AMU?APU Criminology  303


Report this PostReport Abuse
Reply# 26 Quote
Shrek
Guest
anyone have the answers to AMU/APUS Costitutional law quiz 3 and final? I have a
2 years ago
I'm looking for all Quizzes and Exams for LSTD 302/Criminal Law if anyone has it.


Report this PostReport Abuse
Reply# 27 Quote
Posts: 15
Points: 186
Rep:  +2  -0 
anyone have the answers to AMU/APUS Costitutional law quiz 3 and final? I have a
2 years ago
Does any one have CMRJ 300 Research Methods of Criminal Justice & Security. CMRJ 302 Policing in America, CMRJ 316 Corrections in the 21st century, LSTD302 Criminal Law?


Report this PostReport Abuse
Pages: 2  ...    Go Up Reply New Topic more
 
Related Topics
+ Quick Reply
BoldItalicizedUnderlineStrikethrough

Ask a Question

ask
Click to ask a question. 424 Students and 39 members are standing by to answer all your science and biology homework problems, free. So far today, 117 guests have joined.
Related Images
Views
1702
Rating

Views
615
Rating

Views
272
Rating