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Evolutionary Biology EXAM
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A.            Multiple Choice Questions.  Choose the best possible answer.  Use the bubble sheet. (1 pt. each)
1. All of the following are processes that promote new genetic combinations except:
(A)  natural selection (B)  independent assortment  (C) crossing over  (D) mitosis (E)  random fertilization
 2. Which of the following is true about speciation on island archipelagos?
(A) Species clusters are less common (B)  Speciation by polyploidy is most common (C)  Ecological competition may cause new species to go extinct slowing speciation (D)  Most speciation occurs allopatrically (E)  Speciation is slow because it depends on emigration from the mainland

3. Which of the following does not illustrate shared ancestry by anatomical comparison studies?
(A) structures found to be homologous (B) structure loses its function altogether (C) different structures evolve in similar ways when subjected to the same selective pressures (D) structure becomes vestigial (E) same structure has evolved to carry out different function

 4. Children born in areas where proper nutrition is not available to them do not always realize their full growth potential. These children have the genes for normal growth of bones. Which of the following statements can best explain this situation?
(A) Since nutrition is necessary for proper development and is a part of the environment, it is a clear case of environmental effect on the genotype.  (B) The children's parents did not obtain the proper nutrients when they were young and thus were not able to pass on the alleles for normal growth and development.
(C) There will always be examples that reflect this condition in human populations because of the continuous variation that exists for this characteristic. (D) There is a lack of dominance in the alleles for normal bone growth; as a result, the genotype is directly affected. (E) Since nutrition is necessary for proper development and is a part of the environment, it is a clear case of environmental effect on the phenotype.

5. The zygote has:
(A) one full haploid complement of chromosomes. (B) chromosomes identical to those of a sperm cell. (C) one copy of each chromosome. (D) two copies of each chromosome. (E) chromosomes identical to those of an egg cell.

6. DNA, RNA, and ATP contain functional units known as:
(A) enzymes. (B) fatty acids. (C) peptides. (D) amino acids. (E) nucleotides.

7. Lipids are the only class of macromolecules that contain
(A) phosphate groups (B) amino acids (C) sugars (D) nucleic acids (E) fatty acids

8. The model that assumes that evolution proceeds with slow successive change in a given evolutionary line is referred to as: (A) gradualism. (B) punctuated equilibrium. (C) successive descent model. (D) the sympatric model. (E) the allopatric model.

 9. The nitrogen base not found in DNA is called:
(A) guanine. (B) uracil. (C) thymine. (D) cytosine. (E) adenine.

 10. Chromosomes exchange genetic information by
(A) syngamy. (B) fertilization. (C) crossing over. (D) mitosis. (E) DNA replication.

11. Which one of the following is not an example of a reproductive isolating mechanism?
(A) behavioral isolation (B) sympatric isolation (C) ecological isolation (D) mechanical isolation
(E) temporal isolation

 12. The fitness of an individual may depend on all of the following factors except
(A) life span of the individual. (B) climate change. (C) offspring produced per mating.
(D) frequency of individual's phenotype in population. (E) presence of many pleiotropic genes.

 13. If you were to design a long-term research study to determine why there are no human births in Lapland during the months of August, September, and October, you would need to also examine a comparison population of humans in which births took place every month. The primary reason for including a comparison population within the design of this experiment would be to:
(A) test the effects of more than one variable at the same time. (B) prove that there are no births in Lapland during August, September, and October. (C) accumulate more facts that could be reported to other scientists. (D) act as a control that would ensure that the results obtained are due to a difference in only one variable.

14. Due to character displacement, two closely related species may differ most morphologically when they
(A) occupy the same niche. (B) occupy different niches. (C) share a common ancestor. (D) are allopatric.
(E) are sympatric.

15. Let Y = yellow and y = green, and R = round and r = wrinkled. You cross YYRR peas with yyrr peas. All of the F1 individuals are yellow and round with a genotype of YyRr. You then perform a F2 cross and get the expected 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio. Which of the following is the correct genotypic ratio for yellow, round F2 individuals?
(A) 1/16 YyRr, 2/16 YYRr, 2/16 YyRR, 4/16 YYRR
(B) 1/16 YYRR, 2/16 YYRr, 2/16 YyRR, 4/16 YyRr
(C) 1/16 YYRR, 1/16 YYRr, 1/16 YyRR
(D) 1/16 YYRr, 2/16 YYRR, 2/16 YyRR, 4/16 YyRr

16. Which of the following tissues transport water and dissolved minerals upward from the roots?
(A) vascular cambium (B) cork cambium (C) phloem (D) xylem (E) cortex

17. Livestock owners and breeders have most likely maximized their abilities to greatly improve size and speed of the animals that they raise. This is a consequence of :
(A) existing genetic combinations have been nearly exhausted as well as the limited amount of genetic variability that existed to begin with.  (B) using artificial insemination instead of allowing animals to breed on their own. (C) not enough crossing over events in previous livestock generations.
(D) too many crossing over events in previous livestock generations.
18. Let P = purple flowers and p = white, and T = tall plants and t = dwarf. What combinations of gametes could be produced by a heterozygote for both the traits?
(A) P, p, T, t (B) infertile, no gametes produced (C) PpTt only (D) Pp, Tt (E) PT, Pt, pT, pt
 19. The evolution of similar forms in different lineages when exposed to the same selective pressures is
(A) also known as natural selection. (B) referred to as successive homologies. (C) referred to as descent.
(D) called convergence. (E) called divergence.

20. Structures that are derived from the same body part in a common ancestor but may have different appearances and functions are called:
(A) analogous structures. (B) homozygous structures. (C) embryonic structures. (D) homologous structures. (E) vestigial structures.

21. In one of the first steps in meiosis, the:
(A) homologous pairs of chromosomes pair up along their length. (B) chromatids separate and move to opposite ends of the cell. (C) half chromosomes are made inactive. (D) chromosomes become invisible.
(E) clearly defined spindle apparatus appears in the center of the cell.

22. In some instances environmental change causes a situation where one phenotype is favored for a period of time, and then a different phenotype is favored. This oscillating selection causes:
(A) extinction of the population. (B) the maintenance of genetic variation in the population. (C) high population increase to maintain phenotypic variation. (D) an increase in point mutations. (E) elimination of rarer genotypes because of uneven selection.

 23. Which of the following is an example of convergent evolution?
(A) all of the species in a genus of placental mammals (B) homologous organs of apes and humans
(C) Australian marsupials and placental mammals of other continents (D) analogous organs of horses, antelopes, and deer (E) skull bones of vertebrates

24. Meiosis also has been called reduction division because:
(A) there is an initial reduction in the chromosome number during the first division followed by an increase in chromosome number, the second division quickly follows the increase in number of chromosomes.
(B) there is a reduction in the chromosome number during two separate nuclear and cell divisions to produce gametes. (C) new gametes are produced but their numbers are reduced. (D) there is a reduction in the chromosome number during two separate nuclear and cell divisions to produce somatic cells.
(E) new somatic cells are produced but with a reduction in the required amount of time, which promotes faster wound healing.

 25. The age of the Earth according to modern estimations is:
(A) a few thousand years. (B) 4.5 billion years. (C) 1.5 billion years. (D) 3.5 billion years. (E) 8 billion years.

26. A type of isolating mechanism that leads to reproductive isolation by preventing the formation of hybrid zygotes is called _____________ isolating mechanism.
(A) adaptive (B) prezygotic (C) hybridization (D) postzygotic (E) differential

27. The recessive phenotype of a trait occurs in 25% of a population. There are no selection pressures affecting this trait. What would be the expected frequency of the dominant allele after six generations of continued non-selection?
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.75 (D) 1.0 (E) none of the above

28. Which of the following statements about viruses is not accurate?
(A) Viruses cannot reproduce on their own. (B) Viruses can be placed in the Archaea Domain of life because of their similarities with these primitive organisms. (C) Viruses can infect organisms at all taxonomic levels. (D) Viruses are fragments of nucleic acids with associated proteins. (E) Viruses can invade cells and produce more copies of themselves.

29. Ovules are produced in the ovary that is located in the swollen lower portion of the:
(A) pistil. (B) anther. (C) filament. (D) stigma. (E) stamen.
 30. A biologist is examining reproductive cells at the end of meiosis I. She notices that each of the two resulting cells are haploid. She also knows that meiosis II will produce haploid cells. How can her observations be explained?
(A) The cells that resulted from meiosis I are, in fact, haploid, but her knowledge of the result of meiosis II is not accurate, at least for this particular cell type. (B) The cells that resulted from meiosis I are in fact diploid and this explains her observational error and also her knowledge of the meiosis II resulting in haploid cells. (C) There must be an error and she needs to refocus her microscope and look again.
(D) The cells that resulted from meiosis I are in fact haploid, but are composed of two sister chromatids. The sister chromatids will be pulled apart during meiosis II, producing haploid gametes.
(E) The cells that she observed are abnormal and will require further observations.

31. An organism has just been located and needs to be placed into one of the domains of life. The characteristics that have been reported are multicellular and autotrophic. Based on your knowledge, which domain should this organism be placed?
(A) Archaea (B) Plantae (C) Bacteria (D) Eukarya (E) Bacteria
32. The type of speciation that geographically isolates populations and results in the divergence of distinct species is called ____________ speciation.
(A) sexual (B) gradual (C) allopatric (D) adaptive (E) sympatric
 33. Living organisms can be divided into _____ domains.
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) 1

34. In the taxonomic hierarchical system for grouping organisms, the next higher group to a family is
(A) species.(B) phylum.(C) genus.(D) class.(E) order.
35. The production of new species through hybridization is sometimes made easier in plants by
(A) adaptation. (B) meiosis. (C) polyploidy. (D) parthenogenesis. (E) hybrid sterility.
 36. A bacteriophage typically attaches to the bacterium and then
(A) converts the bacteria into immortal cells. (B) falls off every time. (C) injects its nucleic acid into it, and then the capsid stays outside. (D) it becomes inactive. (E) viral protein is injected and the viral DNA stays outside.

37. If populations within a common area split into species, the process is known as
(A) allopatric speciation. (B) sympatric speciation. (C) racial speciation. (D) ecotypical speciation.
(E) reproductive speciation.

38. Carbohydrates are polymers formed of structural units called:
(A) fatty acids. (B) nucleic acids. (C) amino acids. (D) monosaccharides. (E) phosphate groups.

 39. Sympatric speciation can involve all of the following except
(A) autopolyploidy. (B) allopolyploidy. (C) reproductive isolating mechanisms. (D) two or more populations separated by a geographic barrier. (E) disruptive selection.

40. The "scientific creationism" view includes all of the following beliefs except:
(A) extinct species are replaced with new ones. (B) the earth is much younger than most scientists believe. (C) all species of organisms were individually created. (D) Biblical account of the origin of the earth is literally true. (E) the organisms did not change from their original appearance.

41. Which of the following is not a component of nucleic acids? (A) a six-carbon sugar (B) a five-carbon sugar (C) a phosphate group (D) phosphodiester bonds (E) an organic nitrogen containing base

42. Which of the following statements about disruptive selection is false?
(A) It results in polymorphism. (B) It results in a bimodal distribution of phenotypes within a population.
(C) It selects against individuals with intermediate phenotypes. (D) It involves multi-gene inheritance.
(E) It increases heterozygosity within the population.
43. Schlieden and Schwann stated the "cell theory," which in its modern form includes all of the following postulates except: (A) cells vary in size and shape. (B) cells are the smallest living things. (C) all cells need oxygen. (D) all organisms are composed of one or more cells. (E) cells arise only by division of a previously existing cell.
 44. Evidence for evolution can be obtained by examining presently existing species through studies on each of the following except one. Select the exception.
(A) patterns of distribution (B) vestigial structures (C) convergence (D) early development (E) analogous structures
45. Which animal is most likely to be a keystone species? (A) land snail (B) goldfish (C) wolf (D) Galapagos finch.
 46. You see a sign on a door that reads "Homologous Structures Inside." You go in and find
(A) structures of animals that appear to have evolved from different parts of their bodies. (B) structures of animals that have difference appearances and functions but seem to have evolved from the same body part in a common ancestor. (C) structures of animals that have different appearances and functions but different ancestors. (D) structures of animals that have the same appearances and functions but obviously no common ancestor.  

47. The biological species concept of Ernst Mayr can be applied to all of the following except:
(A) sympatric organisms. (B) eukaryotic organisms. (C) prokaryotic organisms. (D) allopatric organisms.
(E) asexually-reproducing organisms.

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48.  In the laboratory, fruit flies (Drosophila) were artificially selected for the number of bristles on their bodies. One population (R) was selected for low numbers of bristles, a second population (S) for high numbers of bristles. After 35 generations (about 1 year's time), the two populations R and S were studied. Researchers found  (A) a slight increase in bristles in S, a slight decrease in R, with a little overlap in the middle ranges.(B) no change was seen; it's much too soon. (C) a huge increase in S, a huge decrease in R, with no overlap whatsoever. (D) a vast, overlapping range of bristle numbers was seen. (E) some slight increase of bristle numbers was already evident.

49. Once species have formed, they keep their identity by: (A) isolating mechanisms. (B) developmental differences. (C) structural modifications. (D) genetic blocks.(E) somatic mutations.

50. DNA and RNA are similar in some respects and different in others. Which of the following statements is not accurate about their similarities?
(A) Both DNA and RNA always double helices. (B) Both DNA and RNA nucleotides contain the nitrogen bases adenine, cytosine, and guanine. (C) Both DNA and RNA contain monosaccharide sugars on their respective nucleotides. (D) Both DNA and RNA are involved in the "Central Dogma" of biology.
(E) Both DNA and RNA contain phosphate groups on their respective nucleotides.

51. The molecular record suggests that a series of evolutionary changes is tied to a progressive accumulation of :(A) somatic mutations. (B) modifications of the environment. (C) alterations of DNA sequences.
(D) extinctions. (E) structural modifications.

 52. Of the following, the correct order from largest, most inclusive group to smallest, most specific group, is
(A) class, genus, order, family, species. (B) species, family, genus, class, order. (C) species, genus, family, class, order. (D) class, family, order, genus, species. (E) class, order, family, genus, species.

53. Today, the fossil record: (A) can be dated precisely, to within a single year, using DNA hybridization.(B) can be dated reasonably well only with uranium-238.(C) can be dated precisely, to within a single year, using radioactive isotopes. (D) can be dated only with one layer in relation to older layers below and younger layers above, no actual dates can be estimated.(E) can be dated reasonably well using a variety of radioactive isotopes with known half-lives.

 54. Which of the following statements describe the assumptions of the gradualism model?
(A) There is variability in the rates of evolution. (B) Speciation is essential to evolution.
(C) Evolution proceeds incrementally, with incremental change in a given evolutionary line.
(D) Evolution occurs in spurts, between which there are long periods in where there is little evolutionary change. (E) Periods of stasis occur.

55. In the southeastern U.S., two species of wild lettuce (Lactuca) do not usually form hybrids, because they bloom at different seasons. The means of isolation appears to be: (A) geographical. (B) behavioral. (C) temporal. (D) mechanical. (E) ecological.

56. An experimental test of the hypothesis to explain the origin of the first organic compounds on Earth might include all of the following sequential steps (starting with A and proceeding to E) except:
(A) inoculating with a few bacteria to get the process started. (B) assembling an atmosphere with H2, CH4, NH3, and H2S. (C) increasing the temperature of the gases. (D) placing this atmosphere over liquid water. (E) providing energy with electrical spark discharges.

57. The disease, sickle-cell anemia is common in malaria-infested areas because individuals that are heterozygous for the gene (AS) have enhanced resistance to malaria over normal individuals (AA). Individuals with severe sickle-cell anemia (SS) usually die before reproduction. Assume that a population under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium has allele frequencies of A = 0.8 and S = 0.2. Assume that this population is then subject to the following selection forces:

AA: 15% die of malaria
AS: 5% die of malaria
SS: 100% die of severe sickle-cell anemia

What will be the frequency of the S allele after selection occurs?
(A) 0.15 (B) 0.04 (C) 0.18 (D) 0.0 (E) 0.3
58. Which of the following is a DNA sequence capable of pairing with CGATTAGT?
(A) CGAUUAGT (B) GCTAATCA (C) CGATTAGT (D) GCUAAUCA
59.  All of the following animal cells are diploid except  
(A)  gametes. (B)  muscles. (C)  nerves. (D)  reproductive organ. (E)  skin.
 60. Which of the following would be expected to produce the smallest evolutionary change in a given period of time in a population of birds? (A) gene flow (B) mutation (C) migration (D) natural selection (E) assortive mating

61. The characteristics of life include all of the following except: (A) complexity. (B) multicellularity. (C) homeostasis. (D) heredity. (E) sensitivity to environment.

62.  The point of connection between the two sister chromatids before anaphase of mitosis separates them is called the:
(A)  homologue. (B) centromere.  (C) microtubule complex. (D)  synapsis. (E)  kinetochore.
63. It has been discovered that enzyme-like catalysis can be carried out not only by enzymes but also by:
(A) phospholipids. (B) sugars. (C) steroids. (D) RNA. (E) DNA.
 64. All living organisms possess the following features except
(A) photosynthesis. (B) cellular organization. (C) reproduction and heredity. (D) growth and metabolism.
(E) homeostasis.

65. Which of the following DNA sequences is complementary to 5' ATGGTCAGT 3'?
(A) 5' TGACTGGTA 3'
(B) 5' TACCAGTCA 3'
(C) 5' ACTGACCAT 3'
(D) 5' ATGGTCAGT 3'

 66. A gene is represented in the gene pool of a population of 10,000 individuals by a dominant (W) and recessive allele (w). If the initial frequency of W in the pool is 0.7, how many generations of complete selection against it would be required to eliminate all W alleles from the population? Assume that there is no mutation and the population meets all other Hardy-Weinberg conditions.
(A) 20 (B) can never be eliminated (C) 5 (D) 2 (E) 1

67. Pinus in the scientific name Pinus ponderosa is the
(A) class. (B) genus. (C) species. (D) family. (E) phylum.

68. Which of the following was produced in experiments on primitive Earth conditions conducted by Miller-Urey and others?
(A) CO2 and H2O (B) methane and oxygen (C) ammonia and water (D) formaldehyde and hydrogen sulfide
(E) amino acids

69. Let P = purple flowers and p = white, and T = tall plants and t = dwarf. Of the 16 possible gamete combinations in the dihybrid cross, how many would be the phenotype white, tall?
(A) none (B) 9 (C) 1 (D) 3 (E) 16

 70. Phages are viruses that can infect
(A) plants. (B) insects. (C) bacteria. (D) humans. (E) farm animals.

71. Angiosperms use which temporary reproductive structures that are not present in any other group of plants? (A) receptacles (B) seeds (C) flowers (D) cones (E) carpels

72. All of the following are examples of prezygotic isolating mechanisms except:
(A) temporal isolation. (B) hybrid sterility. (C) mechanical incompatibility. (D) ecological isolation.
(E) prevention of gamete fusion.

73. The biological species concept of Ernst Mayr can be applied to all of the following except:
(A) eukaryotic organisms. (B) fossil organisms. (C) allopatric organisms. (D) sympatric organisms.
(E) prokaryotic organisms.

74. A biologist seeing a sign describing evolution as "just a theory" would think that ;
(A) evolution occurred in the past, but it is not occurring in the present, so it cannot be a theory.
(B) evolution is just a collection of facts without a central theme and this is not a theory.
(C) evolution is what Darwin proposed to account for all the changes he observed in the finches so it is a hypothesis, not a theory. (D) evolution is a theory that is supported with a tremendous amount of evidence.

 75. The genotype frequencies in a population with no evolution occurring are AA = 0.25, Aa = 0.5, aa = 0.25. By removing all AA individuals before they reproduce and assuming the population will remain under Hardy-Weinberg conditions, what will be the frequency of aa individuals in the next generation?
(A) 0.67 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.33 (D) 0.25 (E) 0.45

76. A kingdom not containing eukaryotes is:
(A) Animalia. (B) Archaebacteria. (C) Protista. (D) Plantae. (E) Fungi.

77. The HIV virus is considered a(n) ______ virus, because after getting integrated into the host cell chromosomes, it does not begin replicating immediately.
(A) latent (B) benign (C) inducible (D) phage (E) transforming

78. Imagine two species of birds with similar beak sizes and diets. Where the two species are allopatric, we would expect that their beak sizes:
(A) should both be smaller. (B) should differ less than when sympatric (C) should differ more than when sympatric. (D) should not differ than when sympatric. (E) should both be larger.

 79. In a large population of randomly reproducing rabbits, a recessive allele r comprises 80% of the alleles for a gene, while a dominant allele R comprises the remaining 20%. What percentage of the rabbits would you expect to have the recessive phenotype?
(A) 4% (B) none (C) 64% (D) 32% (E) 80%

80. Plants that reproduce asexually might produce identical progeny from all of the following except:
(A) portions of stem. (B) portions of leaves. (C) portions of ovules. (D) pollen grains. (E) portions of roots.

 81. The California populations of the Northern elephant seal are descendants from a very small population of seals that was over-hunted in the 1890s. Heterozygosity in this population would be expected to be ________ due to ________________.  (A) great; disruptive selection (B) slight; a bottleneck effect (C) great; a bottleneck effect (D) great;  assortive mating (E) slight; the founder effect
82. When Mendel crossed two purple-flowered pea plants with each other, he obtained a phenotypic ratio of 3:1 (purple-flowered pea plants to white-flowered pea plants). His results are consistent with which of the following sets of parents?
(A) homozygous dominant purple pea plant and homozygous recessive white pea plant (B) heterozygous  purple pea plant and homozygous dominant purple pea plant  (C) heterozygous purple pea plant and homozygous recessive white pea plant (D) heterozygous purple pea plant and heterozygous purple pea plant (E) homozygous dominant purple pea plant and heterozygous white pea plant

83. In comparing artificial and natural selection, which of the following statements is true?
(A) Artificial selection is slower than natural selection. (B) Artificial selection can produce maladaptive  structures, natural selection cannot. (C) In artificial selection, the magnitude of the selection pressure can be varied; in natural selection, it cannot. (D) Artificial selection is reversible; natural selection is not.
(E) Artificial selection cannot produce changes as large as changes produced by natural selection.

84. Several species of sea urchins may inhabit the same tide pool and their reproductive periods overlap. Although they practice external fertilization, they seldom interbreed because eggs produce chemicals that are only attractive to sperm of their own species. This is an example of a _________ barrier involving ________________.  (A) prezygotic; gametic isolation (B) postzygotic; hybrid infertility (C) prezygotic; temporal isolation (D) prezygotic; geographic isolation (E) postzygotic; gametic isolation

 85. Imagine that you were able to see a nucleotide under a very special microscope. As you scan the nucleotide you see a U nitrogen base. Without seeing any other part of the nucleotide you know that
(A) it is an RNA nucleotide. (B) it is either a DNA nucleotide or an RNA nucleotide. (C) you will need to continue to scan for more clues, such as the type of sugar associated with it, to be able to determine which type of nucleotide it is. (D) it is a DNA nucleotide.  

86. Who finally demonstrated that spontaneous generation on earth was false? (A) Lamark (B) Spallanzani (C) Miller (D) Pasteur (E) Linneaus

 87. The oldest fossils are of: (A) pollen grains. (B) prokaryotes. (C) small animals. (D) eukaryotes. (E) insects.

88. Which of the following produces identical cells?
(A) syngamy (B) meiosis (C) mitosis (D) fertilization (E) gamete formation

89. Meiosis and mitosis are both processes that involve nuclear division. What is the difference between the two?  (A) Mitosis is nuclear division, which ultimately leads to haploid gametes. Meiosis is nuclear division, which ultimately leads to diploid somatic cells. (B) Mitosis is nuclear division, which ultimately leads to diploid gametes. Meiosis is nuclear division, which ultimately leads to haploid somatic cells. (C) Mitosis is nuclear division, which ultimately leads to diploid somatic cells. Meiosis is nuclear division, which ultimately leads to haploid gametes. (D) Mitosis is nuclear division, which ultimately leads to syngamy. Meiosis is nuclear division, which ultimately leads to zygotes.

 90. You are studying a population of geese in which there are two color phases, brown and gray. Color in this species is controlled by a single gene, with brown dominant to gray. A random sample of 250 geese shows that 210 are brown. What percentage of the brown geese are heterozygous? (Assume that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.) (A) 84% (B) 57% (C) 43% (D) 48% (E) 36%

91. You are studying meiosis in an organism that has 28 chromosomes as its diploid number. How many chromosomes will the cell have after meiosis II, but before cytokinesis?
(A) 56 (B) cannot determine from the information provided (C) 28 (D) 14
92. Two groups of organisms that differ from one another in one or more characteristics and do not hybridize extensively if they occur together in nature are considered to be different
(A) races. (B) kingdoms. (C) hybrids. (D) species. (E) cohabitants.
 93. Adaptive radiation is likely to produce several to many
(A) reproductive isolating mechanisms. (B) key innovations. (C) sterile hybrids. (D) races. (E) species clusters.
  
94. A virgin pine forest covers a valley, and one of the inhabitants is a red squirrel species. A large volcanic eruption occurs and separates the valley with a huge lava flow that the squirrels cannot cross, thus producing two isolated populations of squirrels. What change needs to occur for the two populations of squirrels to become separate species?
(A) The area that the squirrel populations occupy changes so that the squirrel populations exist in distinct habitats. (B) The fur color of the two squirrel populations must become distinct. (C) The two squirrel populations select mates using the same sexual behavior. (D) The two squirrel populations must eat distinct species of plants. (E) The two squirrel populations become reproductively isolated.

95. In the case of the toothed whales, the fossil record:
(A) shows they evolved from a land mammal with hooves. (B) has fragmentary evidence that cannot be explained. (C) has no evidence about how they evolved. (D) shows they evolved from fish. (E) shows they evolved from swimming dinosaurs.

96. Imagine you want to produce a male mouse experimentally by adding or taking away genetic components from the cells of a mouse embryo. All of the following experiments will produce a male mouse except  (A) Start with two X chromosomes and add a Y chromosome. (B)) Start with two X chromosomes and add an SRY gene. (C) Start with an X chromosome and a Y chromosome, then add nothing. (D) Start with two X chromosomes, then remove one of the X chromosomes.

97. Evidence for evolution includes all of the following except:
(A) intelligent design. (B) the molecular record. (C) homologous structures. (D) the fossil record. (E) vestigial structures.

 98. Which of the following statements about the laboratory and field studies on evolution of protective coloration in the guppy is false?
(A) Substantial evolutionary changes in guppy populations can occur in as few as several years.
(B) Guppy predation was greater in pools below waterfalls than above waterfalls. (C) Killifish can be found both above and below waterfalls. (D) Guppies transferred to pools above waterfalls remained drab if killifish were present there. (E) Pike are only found below waterfalls.
99. Which one of the following is not true about species that show convergent evolution?
(A) Must be found in the same biogeographical region. (B) Subject to similar selection pressures.
(C) Do not share a recent common ancestor. (D) Have similar phenotypes. (E) Can share homologous structures.
 100. Plants such as oaks, birches, and corn produce both staminate and pistillate flowers on the same plant.   These types of plants are known as: (A) dioecious. (B) monoecious. (C) hermaphroditic. (D) complete. (E) determinant.



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4 years ago

What chapter is this from?



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Reply# 3
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4 years ago

What chapter is this from?

to be honest, i have no clue, i just collected files over my undergrad and now im uploading them, prolly some ap stuff or environmental science book



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