1. The systems approach views the elements of an organization as interconnected.
2. Molly is very frustrated because she reports to three different managers who all tell her different things to do at different times. This is why Henri Fayol included unity of command in his fourteen principles.
3. Which of the following concentrate on the problems top-level managers face in managing the organization as a whole? classical organization theory
4. Mary Parker Follett was a main contributor to the behavioral sciences approach who believed that managers should focus on their knowledge of human behavior rather than their formal authority; and managers and workers should view themselves as partners in a common project to be successful.
5. Which principle in Fayol's principles of management holds that all workers in an organization should be committed to the same plan of action? unity of direction
6. What does planning as a management function determine? what results the organization will achieve
7. Which one is NOT one of Henri Fayol's fourteen principles? High degree of specialization will increase the overall efficiency of the organization.
8. Which approach owes its origins to some complex military problems faced by England in the second world war? management science approach
9. Management techniques such as time and motion analysis, work simplification, incentive wage systems, production scheduling, and personnel testing are all direct outgrowths of which approach to management? classical approach
10. One of the purposes of the classical management theory was to identify the basic function of managing organizations.
11. The classical approach focused on two perspectives: scientific management concentrated on the problems of lower-level managers while classical organization dealt with problems facing the top-level managers of an organization.
12. Which approach uses the same scientific tools as that of the behavioral science approach, but applies them specifically to questions concerning practicing managers? management science approach
13. How should organizations operate to survive and utilize a systems perspective to management? as open systems
14. Which one of the following is NOT a key to harmony developed by Frederick W. Taylor? increase the work pace to get the most work out of your employees
15. Which approach stresses that the correctness of managerial practice is contingent on how it fits the particular situation to which it is applied? contingency approach
16. Demands are made of the organization by certain groups and the firm is socially responsible when they react--voluntarily or involuntarily--to satisfy these demands. With regard to this statement, which view of social responsibility is the organization practically employing? social reaction
17. A corporation can be deemed socially reactive if it goes beyond the letter of the law in implementing such actions as filling managerial roles with minorities and women.
18. Which interpretation of social responsibility seeks to separate corporate actions that are required by economic or legal imperative from those that are initiated by voluntary and altruistic motives? social reaction
19. Corporate activities in response to each group--customers, employees, and stockholders--can be classified as obligatory, reactive, or responsive.
20. A corporation allows a 3% pollution discharge to the environment when the government allows a maximum of 5% discharge. This corporation's action represents which view of social responsibility? could be two of the three above answers
21. Stakeholder management devices (SMDs) impose internal constraints on organization members in their dealings with external stakeholders.
22. Which element of effective governance is being reflected when a performance report includes an evaluation of adherence to codes of ethical behavior, and has a provision which takes into account the fact that some employees will have a harder time than others achieving goals while continuing to uphold ethical standards? Compensation
23. Leaders who convey their message to employees in public speeches and through corporate communications vehicles as well as through their own actions are said to be walking the talk.
24. What are the capabilities of a computer that have fostered significant changes in the organizational processes, decision making, and organizational design? capturing, analyzing, and sharing information
25. Education and training of ethical guidelines are important for many reasons. One such reason is that employees are forced to consider problems that require more than a simple yes or no answer. These issues are known as: gray zone issues
26. The fundamental right of a stockholder is not to be guaranteed profit but to be guaranteed information on which a prudent investment decision can be based.
27. Laws and regulations establish the bases for judging product safety, but market and competitive forces often set standards for product quality.
28. A business can take socially responsible actions in terms of its product line by manufacturing a safe, reliable, and high-quality product.
29. Name the individual who stated, "There is one and only one social responsibility of business--to use its resources and engage in activities designed to increase its profits so long as it stays within the rules of the game, which is to say, engages in open and free competition without deception or fraud." Milton Friedman
30. Proponents of social responsibility as social obligation believe that governments are best equipped to determine the nature of social improvements and to realize those improvements in society.
31. Which of the following is not a common planning trade-off faced by managers in business organizations? free trade initiative versus regional expansion
32. Innovative hiring or compensation plans, and maternity leave programs are all examples of quality-based planning, which involves setting objectives that add value by exceeding mandated standards or even setting of standards of quality.
33. Strategic plans focus on the broad, enduring issues for ensuring a firm's effectiveness over a long period of time while operational plans are more focused, short term, and specific.
34. One of the most important reasons for having objectives is for measurement purposes. Many businesses measure their objectives within all of the following categories EXCEPT: businesses measure all of these categories
35. What is the term used to describe historical analyses of past sales to convert into estimates of future sales? time-series analysis
36. Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between profitability and competitive strength measurements? Competitive strength factors will help indicate how profitable you will be in the long run.
37. Efficiency directly influences performance and involves both human and nonhuman resources of the organization.
38. Implementation involve(s) the assignment and direction of personnel to carry out the plan.
39. Persuasion is a process of selling a plan to those who must implement it, communicating relevant information so individuals understand all implications. In this sense, persuasion requires convincing others to base acceptance of a plan upon merit rather than the authority of the manager.
40. Sunlight Shade Inc. would like to develop a new product within the next two years. Managers need to write a plan that includes the specific time frame and detailed objectives about the product quality, primary markets, roll out schedule, etc. What plan will the managers need to write: single-use plan
41. What objective measures the competitive strength of the organization and focuses on the prospects for long-term profitability? Competitiveness
42. Scope refers to the range of activities covered by a plan, time frame is the period considered by the plan, and level of details concerns the specificity of the plan.
43. What is the ultimate test of the effectiveness of a policy? whether the objective is attained
44. Financial budgets' usefulness depends mainly on how flexible they are to changes in conditions. Two principal means exist to provide flexibility: Variable budgeting and moving budgeting
45. Management initiates planning to determine the priority and timing of objectives.
46. In the five-step decision-making process, which step involves examining the organization's internal and external environments for information and ideas that may lead to creative solutions to a problem? Developing alternative courses of action
47. Summative feedback provides a "bottom line" assessment of the decision's effectiveness by comparing the results to company and industry standards.
48. Sometimes when groups are making decisions, individuals tend to bring up their favorite problems or solutions to every group meeting. This is known as: The garbage can phenomenon
49. What are the types of feedback employed by managers to gather the necessary information? Formative feedback, summative feedback
50. When is formative feedback used? During actual implementation process
51. Proactive decisions are made in anticipation of an external change or external conditions whereas reactive decisions are made in response to changes that have already occurred.
52. Which of the following statements accurately describes using intuition when making decisions? You should combine intuition with systematic information gathering when making decisions.
53. Delphi Technique is a technique for stimulating creativity that involves collecting anonymous judgments from group members by questionnaires.
54. Identify the term that refers to computer systems that can make decisions without human interaction. Expert systems
55. Clearly defining the task, providing guild lines to begin or follow, delegating authority to accomplish the task, monitoring the tasks but not hovering, providing feedback along the way, and rewarding and recognizing effort as well as results are the six steps to Effective delegation.
56. What is the term, suggested by Cohen and Mark, for a scenario where people use committee meetings to air their special grievances? Garbage can phenomenon
57. Summative feedback is used at the end of the implementation process to provide a "bottom-line" assessment of the effectiveness of a decision by comparing the result to company and industry standards.
58. Which of the following statements accurately describes evaluating alternative courses of action? None of the above statements accurately describe the evaluation process.
59. A Local bank just purchased a computer system that will offer advice and solutions to complex problems without human interaction. This type of computer system is known as a/an: Expert system
60. Consider the instance of a manger delaying or completely avoiding making tough decisions about a problem employee, owing to his personal feelings toward the employee. What type of bias can be identified through this example in terms of clarifying the problem? Perceptual inaccuracies
61. Alignment means that the organization's structure is such that it facilitates realization of the organization's goals and objectives, while organizational stratey specifies what will be accomplished.
62. A dual authority system is distinguishing characteristic of the Matrix organization.
63. The use of functional departments requires that the activities of the several interrelated departments be coordinated. Consequently, authority to coordinate them will be retained in top management. What does this statement convey about the relation between centralization and functional departments? Greater the use of functional departments, greater the centralization
64. The decision making and control aspect of an organization helps describe its centralization
65. Which of the following refers to the formal channel that defines the authority, responsibility, and communication relationships from top to bottom in an organization? Chain of command
66. In terms of the four design decisions, which dimension of structure is the result of high specialization of labor, high delegation of authority, the use of functional departments, and wide spans of control? Formalized
67. Functional departments help(s) in formalization by bringing together jobs that make up an occupation such as accountants, engineers, mechanists, etc.
68. A network organization is known for being a flexible, usually temporary set of alliances among disparate companies that have come together for a specific, single purpose.
69. A company with copious physical space decides to separate sales marketing. Which factor of departmentalization is being illustrated here? Physical location
70. Organic organizations base departmentalization on product and customer, rather that on function.
71. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe decentralization? Decentralization decreases the amount of autonomy for managers.
72. Organizational design is the process by which managers develop an organizational structure.
73. Delegation of Decision making is the center of decentralized organizational structure.
74. What is the relationship between formalization and high delegation of authority? High delegation of authority creates the need for written guidelines for decision making
75. Determining what to delegate, matching projects to staff members, communicating ones expectations, following up, and showing appreciation are five steps for efficient delegation.
76. Distinct mission, own competitors, single business or collection of businesses, and planning independent of other businesses of the total organization. These are the four characteristics of Strategic business units.
77. In relation to SWOT, A company's strengths are derived from it's financial, human, and other resources.
78. Issues management technique focuses on gathering information about analyzing issues that are critical to the organization's continued performance.
79. Conjoint analysis and focus groups are examples of customer-perceived value measurements to develop new products and services, and improve existing offerings.
80. What are the aspects that need to be considered in establishing the mission of a firm? The firm's history, distinctive competencies, and environment
81. Which competitive strategy can be attributed to the success of U.S. Postal Service, McDonald's, and Hyundai? Cost leadership
82. All of the following are characteristics of strategic business units EXCEPT: It shares the same mission with the other SBUs of a company.
83. Using the BCG matrix, Robert has concluded that one of his SBUs has a high market share in a low-growth market. What are his options to do with this SBU? Hold or invest
84. Jan would like to analyze her company to determine its internal weaknesses, external threats internal strengths, and external opportunities. Jan needs to do a/an: SWOT analysis
85. Many companies use a technique known as environmental scanning to assess the external trends in business and society in general, to consider the impact if these trends on the industry, and view the firm's position as part of an interconnected business ecosystem.
86. Organizations conduct an external business environment analysis to discover their: opportunities & threats
87. After a mission and goals are specified, they must be put into action through a/an: operating strategy
88. A company that attempts to attract a large number of customers with a large volume of low-price units is using a cost leadership strategy.
89. Which of the following characteristics does NOT accurately describe the cost leadership strategy? high profit margin
90. The only sustainable competitive advantage for a firm in the global marketplace is its human resources.
91. The use of which performance evaluation method provides valuable insight into developing training programs? Behaviorally anchored rating scales
92. Which rating scale provides the rater of performance evaluation with a printed form that lists a number of job performance qualities and characteristics to be considered? Graphic rating scales
93. Identify the innovation with regard to using multisource evaluation for making decisions about promotion, training and development, and career planning. 360-degree feedback
94. Consider that an employee is guaranteed a minimum wage for performing an expected minimum output. For production over the standard, the employer pays a certain amount per additional pieces produced. Which individual incentives form is being followed in this case? Piecework
95. What does it mean when pay is to be cost-effective for the compensation system to be effective? It should not be beyond the affordability of an organization
96. Which of the following benefit is NOT required by law? Medical insurance
97. Which part of human resource management suggests that it is important to match individuals over time to shifts in organizational and human needs? The proper use of people
98. Which compensation plan pays employees on the basis of units produced, taking the form of piecework, production bonuses, and/ or commissions? Individual incentives
99. In context to performance evaluation, which purpose is being served when the results are the basis for salary, promotion, and transfer decisions? Judgmental purpose
100. A Results-based program typically involves the establishment of objectives by the manager alone or jointly by the managers and subordinates or an organization, in relation to performance evaluation.
101. Which aspect of human resource management does the process flow of screening, interviews, testing, and hiring indicate? Selection of personnel
102. Identify the combination of criteria that need to be addressed in test selection. What qualities or characteristics have been shown to correlate with high or low performance standards in the relevant job?
103. Identify the two broad purposes of performance evaluation. Judgmental and developmental
104. The Semistructured interview has only some questions prepared in advance allowing the interviewer more flexibility, while the unstructured interview allows the interviewer the freedom to discuss what he/ she thinks is important.
105. Some steps that managers can take to ensure sound employment decisions include all of the following EXCEPT: All of the above can ensure sound employment decisions
106. Participation in the stock purchase plan for just being an employee; 'Analyst of the Quarter' recognition for creating a needed spreadsheet; training certificates for attending team-building seminars etc. are examples of attempts to use glory as the prime motivator.
107. Identify the term associated with rewards that are provided/ given by another person for completing a task/ activity, and are tangible and visible to others. Extrinsic
108. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe motivation? All employees are motivated by the same rewards.
109. What could be the perception of an employee if he/she seeks to reduce his/her effort or seeks higher rewards? Input-to-outcome ratio is lower than the reference ratio
110. Social needs level in the hierarchy of needs is a point of departure from the physical/ quasi-physical needs of the physiological and safety needs.
111. If an employee believes that his input-to-output ratio is higher than the reference ratio, he will be likely to: increase his efforts or reduce his rewards
112. Organizations can support the satisfaction of esteem needs by recognizing good performance and permitting employees to work autonomously to complete challenging and meaningful job tasks.
113. Research supporting Herzberg’s theory found that maintenance factors can lead to employees feeling not satisfied and motivator factors can lead to employees feeling satisfied.
114. Who propounded the achievement-motivation theory? David McClelland
115. The employees’ abilities, outside work activities, available resources, working conditions, and the style of management are important factors to consider when diagnosing what is thought to be a motivation problem.
116. Identify the two types of rewards. intrinsic and extrinsic
117. Identify the motivational theory put forward by J. Stacy Adams. Equity theory
118. Identify the term generally used to describe the process of starting, directing, and maintaining physical and psychological activities. Motivation
119. Who is the proponent of the expectancy theory of motivation? Victor H. Vroom
120. ry that defines motivation as M = E times I times V, meaning that employees weigh the likelihood that various behaviors will achieve the desired goal which will lead to a desired reward. Expectancy theory
121. Bandwidth refers to the amount of data that can be squeezed through an electronic medium.
122. In face-to-face situations, direct feedback is possible through verbal exchanges as well as through subtle means such as facial expressions that indicate discontent or misunderstanding.
123. Unfortunately, communication problems can result from the time pressures within an organization. For example, managers may participate in short-circuiting which excludes someone in the formal channel of communication because of time restraints.
124. Often overlooked in the design of most organizations is provision for the formal horizontal flow of communication.
125. In an organization, the jobs that people perform will create different, potentially conflicting, frames of reference. Which of the following substantiates this argument? A pricing problem will be viewed differently by the marketing manager than by the plant manager.
126. The primary purpose of which kind of dialogue is to imagine the different, possible futures that one might create, and use that insight in the present? the visionary conversation
127. In every communication situation, receivers make value judgment by assigning an overall worth to a message prior to receiving the entire communication.
128. Michelle nodded her head to let her boss know that she understood the message. This action to let the communicator determine whether the message has been received or not is known as: feedback
129. During a job interview, Thomas subconsciously jiggled his foot on the floor as a way of releasing some degree of stress. Adapter
130. Ben is very direct, bold, and competitive. When he is communicating with Katie, he seems to be very loud and upset to her because she is more quiet, relaxed, and reserved. This is a difference in: interpersonal style
131. What are the distinct directions a managers must provide for organizational communication? downward, upward, horizontal
132. Body expressions are an important source of nonverbal communication. Examples include regulator which are movements that help control the conversation (a nod of the head) and adapters which are expressions used to help people deal with stress in an interpersonal situation (drumming fingers on a table).
133. Decoding refers to the process by which receivers translate the message into terms meaningful to them.
134. Nonverbal communication is present in the vocal cues, facial expressions, posture, or spatial orientation of a sender.
135. Short-circuiting is a failure of the formally prescribed communication system often resulting from time pressures.
136. The indirect approach refers to techniques managers might use that don't require their direct intervention.
137. Bargaining is a type of indirect approach in which managers have the groups agree about what each will get and give to each other.
138. Role creation with groups is not without its share of problems. Common problems include role conflict, role ambiguity, and role overload.
139. Employees tend to form groups during lunch times or break times that may differ from those required by the organization. These groups are considered to be informal groups
140. Melanie is a part of a work group that usually brings snacks to eat during the meeting. This explicit agreement among group members that allows members to eat during the meeting is an example of a/an: group norm
141. Conflict occurs when one party perceives that another party has frustrated, or is about to frustrate, the accomplishment of a goal.
142. Status is the rank, respect, or social position that an individual has in a group.
143. The command group is specified by the organizational hierarchy, usually outlined on the organization chart.
144. A role is a set of shared expectations regarding a member's attitude and task behavior within the group.
145. Which of the below is not a social process that brings about compliance with group norms? group conflict
146. Interrole conflict occurs when two different types of roles collide. A manager may have to fire an employee who is also a friend.
147. Virtual teams are composed of individuals who operate across space and time and who communicate mainly through electronic technologies.
148. The model of organizational groups indicates that two types of groups, formal and informal, exist in the organization.
149. Managers and non-managers belong to a number of different groups within organizations, and individual memberships in groups often overlap.
150. The received role is the role recipient's understanding of what the sent role means.
151. Which term refers to the random variation in a system that can’t be completely eliminated? common cause variation
152. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe the payback method? it considers the time value of money.
153. Using a firm’s past financial statements to determine if changes should be made in future resource acquisitions or operational activities is an example of feedback control method.
154. While using a control chart to record the targeted activity over time, a manager notices some variation within the upper and lower control limits. This type of variation could be due to: common cause variation
155. Nonrandom variation is not considered to be part of the normal causal processes of a system. This type of variation leads to unpredictable outcomes, something management wants to eliminate.
156. Performance standards should be aligned not only with overall organizational goals but also with the firm’s reward and compensation plan.
157. Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between price and quality? There is usually a direct relatioship between price and quality.
158. Concurrent is a necessary form of control because it focuses on the actual, ongoing activities of an organization to ensure that everything stay on track.
159. Effective control requires corrective action for any deviations between actual and standard results.
160. Unfortunately, we can not completely eliminate every type of variation. However, managers need to recognize and correct any type of special cause variation, which is due to some kind of external influence upon a system.
161. TQM is the generic name given to the approach to quality-based management developed by W. Edwards Demming that is heavily oriented toward treating the system as the primary source of error or defects in manufacturing or service work.
162. The control of quality is largely the control of variation.
163. Day-to-day direction of subordinates is an example of concurrent control.
164. Daniel has to decide how his organization will invest its money. He can either buy a new piece of equipment that will help make the production line more efficient, purchase a new information technology system, or invest the money in high-growth stocks. If he decides to buy the new piece of equipment, he needs to consider the rate of return that he could have made if he purchased the new technology or stocks. This is called the: opportunity cost
165. The resource acquired at the input end of the production process is usually designated as raw material.
166. JIT increases ordering costs because if materials are purchased in small quantities, more orders are required.
167. Managers can use network-scheduling models to combine and schedule resources or to control activities so plans are carried out as stated.
168. Production and operations managers are responsible for producing the goods and services that businesses sell.
169. Identify the process that uses mass production techniques to make many items of one kind, such as roller bearings, nuts, or bolts. continuous process
170. Identify the system widely credited with helping to reduce by two years the time for the completion of the Polaris missile's engineering and development program. PERT
171. In the past decade more and more companies have elected to use a cellular organization design for production.
172. Which of the following principles, employed in JIT manufacturing, involves reducing the number of suppliers and focusing on developing long-term relationships with high-quality vendors? reduce order costs
173. Manufacturing refers only to the physical process of producing goods.
174. P&O managers have product planning responsibilities such as preparing forecasts, schedules, and budgets in collaboration with top management, finance managers, and marketing managers.
175. Cell formation in cellular manufacturing deals with the identification of machines that can be grouped to create manufacturing cells and the identification of part families to be processed within each cell.
176. Ordering costs include the clerical and administrative costs per order, and the costs of placing the materials into inventory.
177. Service sector businesses often require small office facilities in heavy-traffic areas convenient to customers or to the electronic communications and other services the business itself requires.
178. Building of large ships, large printing presses, and high-rise office buildings are examples of project manufacturing
179. SCM is typically viewed to lie between fully vertically integrated firms, where the entire material flow is owned by a single firm, and those where each channel member operates independently.
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