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A nerve is a bundle of axons, and some nerves are less sensitive to lidocaine. If a nerve, rather than an axon, had been used in the lidocaine experiment, the responses recorded at R1 and R2 would be the sum of all the action potentials (called a compound action potential). Would the response at R2 after lidocaine application necessarily be zero? Why or why not
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Firstly, it's important to understand that lidocaine is a sodium channel antagonist and will block sodium ion channels from working, preventing the generation of an action potential. So, I'd say no.
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yeah, it also if depend if the nerve is sensitive to the lidocaine, or not.
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