This exam is worth 100 points Evolutionary Biology
in the whole course Exam II, Fall 2011
A. Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best possible answer. Use the bubble sheet. (1 pt. each)
1. Ducks have webbed feet. The trait of webbed feet in the common ancestor of ducks: (A) appeared in ancestral ducks because they lived in water and needed webbed feet to swim (B) appeared in ancestral ducks because of chance mutation(s) (C) appeared in ancestral ducks because they helped them fly (D) none of the above (E) all of the above.
2. The sperm of a Species A dies when it comes in contact with secretions in the female reproductive tract of Species B. This is an example of: (A) gradualism
(B) punctuated equilibrium (C) periodic isolation (D) a prezygotic isolating mechanism (E) a postzygotic isolating mechanism
3. A group of 100 ducks is taken to a zoo where they are put in a cage that has a lot of food, but no big pools of water. The cage is only three feet high so the ducks can’t fly very well. The ducks are allowed to breed. We expect that the offspring of these zoo ducks: (A) will not have wings (B) will not have webbed feet (C) will have much smaller feet than their parents (D) will have feet very similar to their parents feet (E) both A and B.
4. Under which of the following conditions would you expect rapid evolution of species to occur? (A) among populations in similar habitats (B) in large, randomly breeding populations (C) in populations with few reproductive isolating mechanisms
(D) among populations experiencing the same stabilizing selection (E) among populations exposed to climatic and other environmental changes
5. The chemical DDT is used to kill mosquitoes in many countries. In the lab, you expose 1000 mosquitoes to DDT and it kills 991 of the mosquitoes. The mosquitoes that survived: (A) by chance were able to resist DDT (B) evolved to be able to resist DDT (C) were faster than the other mosquitoes (D) learned to be able to resist DDT (E) both A and D.
6. Approximately how long did the earth exist before life appeared on it? (A) 4.5 billion years (B) 2.7 billion years (C) 1 billion years (D) 1 million years (E) 200 thousand years
7. What is the proportion of alleles likely to be shared by a human child and his biological father? (A) all (B) 3/4 (C) 1/2 (D) 1/4 (E) 1/8.
8. Miller and Urey’s experiment demonstrated that (A) life evolved on earth from inorganic chemicals (B) coacervates were the precursors to true cells (C) complex organic molecules can form spontaneously under conditions that probably existed on the early earth (D) RNA can act as an enzyme and assemble new RNA molecules (E) bacteria were the first type of living organisms to appear on the earth
9. What is the proportion of alleles likely to be shared by a human brother and sister? (A) all (B) ¾ (C) 1/2 (D) 1/4 (E) 1/8.
10. Which of the following traits evolved most recently? (A) prokaryotic cells
(B) eukaryotic cells (C) multicellularity (D) photosynthesis (E) hereditary mechanisms
11. Which assumption is incompatible with the Hardy-Weinberg principle? (A) lack of mutation (B) no differential migration (C) presence of natural selection (D) large breeding population (E) random breeding
12. If you are looking at an organism that is eukaryotic, multicellular, heterotrophic and has chitin in its cell walls, you are looking at a member of the Kingdom (A) Protista (B) Fungi (C) Archaeobacteria (D) Animalia (E) Plantae
13. Which of the following statements represents a monohybrid cross between a heterozygote and a homozygous recessive? (A) TT x tt (B) Tt x TT (C) ttMM x TTmm (D) tTMm x ttmm (E) None of the above
14. In the current classification system, families are grouped into: (A) classes (B) phyla (C) orders (D) divisions (E) kingdoms
15. What type of selection is most likely responsible for the large antlers on male elk? (A) kin selection (B) sexual selection (C) group selection (D) territorial selection (E) altruism.
16. Viruses are assigned to (A) Archaeobacteria (B) Protista (C) Eubacteria
(D) Prokaryota (E) None of the above.
17. Which organism was responsible for initiating the 02 revolution? (A) cyanobacteria (B) green bacteria (C) green algae (D) liverworts (E) flowering plants
18. All viruses form _______ around their nucleic acid (A) an envelope (B) a cell wall (C) a capsid (D) a cell membrane (E) a capsule
19. What situation might set the stage for genetic drift? (A) presence of significant back mutation (B) absence of artificial selection (C) absence of differential migration
(D) small population size (E) kin selection
20. What is true about all tracheophytes but not true about bryophytes? (A) they bear seeds (B) they have some cells that are flagellated (C) they have phloem (D) the dominant generation is a gametophyte (E) They have anthers and produce pollen.
21. Prokaryotic organisms make up (A) Archaebacteria, Eubacteria, and Protista
(B) Archaebacteria and Protista (C) Protista and Eubacteria (D) Protista
(E) Eubacteria and Archaebacteria.
22. Genetic recombination occurs in bacteria through the transfer of (A) pili
(B) plasmids (C) endospores (D) autopores (E) gametes
23. An evolutionary tree is also called (A) phrenology (B) a dendrology (C) an endogeny (D) a phylogeny (E) an ontogeny.
24. In the process of transcription (A) the base sequence of DNA is copied into RNA (B) a polypeptide is formed as specified by the genes in chromosomes (C) rRNA is specified by exons in DNA (D) a strand of mRNA is formed with base sequences complementary to those of DNA (E) mRNA is formed as coded by introns
25. Viruses are most conveniently thought of as (A) lost chromosomes (B) the most primitive bacteria (C) fragments of genomes (D) prions (E) escaped genomes.
26. The cellular slime molds form a moving mass that eventually transforms itself into a _____ containing spores (A) slug (B) sorocarp (C) macrocyst (D) plasmodium
(E) pellicle
27. Cell division in bacteria takes place mainly by (A) conjugation (B) binary fission (C) sporulation (D) fragmentation (E) mitosis.
28. What is the best criterion for determining if a trait is due to polygene inheritance?
(A) there are multiple alleles (B) it is pleiotropic (C) it has epigenetic effects (D) it produces a normal distribution (bell shaped curve) of the trait (E) the Punnett Square indicates that the genes sort independently, i.e are not linked.
29. Resource partitioning is the likely result of (A) competitive exclusion (B) disruptive selection (C) allopatric speciation (D) stabilizing selection (E) kin selction
30. In transcription, the nucleotide sequence CAT in DNA would specify ____ in mRNA (A) TAC (B) GUA (C) CAT (D) GTU (E) STOP
31. Which organisms are responsible for starting the oxygen revolution?
(A) Archeobacteria (B) Green bacteria (C) Plants (D) Cyanobacteria (E) Green algae
32. Which characteristic would you expect the Protozoa to lack? (A) cell walls
(B) rough endoplasmic reticulum (C) heterotrophic nutrition (D) pseudopodia
(E) they would have them all
33. Which of the following would lack the typical 9+2 arrangement of microtubules?
(A) Protista (B) Fungi (C) Archaeobacteria (D) Paramecia (E) all of them would have this arrangement
34. The ______ ultimately matures into a fruit (A) integument (B) ovary (C) carpel
(D) stamen (E) sepal
35. What do the following organisms have in common: brown algae, mosses, horsetails, club mosses, and ferns? (A) chlorophyll a and b (B) double fertilization
(C) swimming sperm (D) xylem (E) dominant sporophyte.
36. Which of the following would you not expect to find in single celled eukaryotic algae? (A) Mitochondria (B) Ribosomes (C) Linear chromosomes (D) Chloroplasts
(E) I would expect all of the above
37. Cross-over is the (A) the duplication of the double helix prior to cell division (B) exchange of homologous chromosome segments (C) pulling apart of the chromatids during meiosis (D) swapping of DNA units between prokaryotes and viruses. (E) none of the above.
38. Lemurs only occur on the island of Madagascar. What type of distribution do they have? (A) disjunct (B) remote (C) endemic (D) Isolated (E) Cosmopolitan
39. What is the best way to describe genetic drift? Genetic drift (A) is a gradual change in genes (B) occurs when two populations interbreed (C) is adaptation to a habitat
(D) occurs when it is needed (E) is the change of a population’s genetic make-up through chance alone.
40. What is a polyploid number for a plant that has a diploid number of 18? (A) nine
(B) ten (C) nineteen (D) twenty-seven (E) none of the above
41. What does it mean when the selection coefficient for a genotype is 0.5? (A) the genotype is lethal (B) the genotype has a high probability of survival in a population
(C) the phenotype has a zygote superiority (D) the genotype is heterozygous (E) none of the above.
42. A key difference between mitosis and meiosis is that(A) mitosis leads to the transfer of genetic information from generation to generation and meiosis does not (B) there is a duplication of genetic material prior to cell division in one and not the other. (C) Diploid cells are the result of the process in mitosis and haploid cells in meiosis (D) There are two cell divisions in mitosis and one in meiosis (E) cross-over is common in mitosis but not meiosis
43. Cladistic relationships are based upon (A) similar use of unlike structures (B) dissimilar use of similar structures (C) common lines of descent (D) analogous structures (E) epigenetic effects
44. What is characteristic of a retrovirus? (A) lacks a protein coat (B) infects plasmids (C) always has an RNA genome (D) lacks an envelope (E) typically infects plants.
45. Which important condition must be fulfilled if two populations are to be considered different species? (A) geographic isolation (B) reproductive isolation (C) lack of mutation in both populations (D) disjunct distributions (E) presence of homologous structures
46. The function of tRNA is to (A) provide a place for polypeptide synthesis
(B) transport amino acids to the ribosome (C) travel to the ribosome to direct the assembly of polypeptides (D) transcribe DNA (E) translate DNA
47. The drug AZT is very effective at treating AIDS patients and reducing the number or virions present in the blood. Unfortunately, the effectiveness of this treatment rapidly diminishes over time. How does HIV acquire resistance to AZT? (A) The HIV needs the resistance to survive and mutates in response (B) AZT promotes the mutation of the HIV genome (C) Some HIV have natural resistance and they survive and reproduce (D) HIV overcomes the Central Dogma (E) All of the above
48. The concept of “Intelligent Design” to explain how organisms adapt, has been ruled unconstitutional because (A) organisms are not perfect (B) the presence of vestigial organs cannot be explained by the argument (C) the “Intelligent Designer must necessarily be a god (D) ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny which is incompatible with the concept (E) all of the above
49. In the cladistic diagram below, humans, chimpanzees, Rhesus macaques, and tarsiers form a taxonomic group that is (A) monophyletic (B) diphyletic (C) paraphyletic
(D) triphyletic (E) polyphyletic
50. In the cladistic diagram below which organism is most closely related to an elephant?
(A) dolphin (B) a common shrew (C) sloth (D) cow (E) horse
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