Chapter 1 - Understanding Nutrition 13th Edition by Whitney

Chapter 1 – An Overview of Nutrition Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following is NOT among the features of a chronic disease? a. It develops slowly b. It lasts a long time c. It produces sharp pains d. It progresses gradually 2. What is the chief reason people choose the foods they eat? a. Cost b. Taste c. Convenience d. Nutritional value 3. Which of the following is NOT among the consequences of making poor food choices? a. Over the long term, they will reduce lifespan in some people b. They can promote heart disease and cancer over the long term c. Over the long term, they will not affect lifespan in some people d. When made over just a single day, they exert great harm to your health 4. A child’s strong dislike of noodle soup that developed after she consumed some when she was sick with flu is an example of a food-related a. habit. b. social interaction. c. emotional turmoil. d. negative association. 5. A parent who offers a child a favorite snack as a reward for good behavior is encouraging a food behavior known as a. social interaction. b. reverse psychology. c. positive association. d. habitual reinforcement. 6. A person who eats a bowl of oatmeal for breakfast every day is most likely making a food choice based on a. habit. b. availability. c. body image. d. environmental concerns. 7. Which of the following represents a food choice based on negative association? a. A tourist from China who rejects a hamburger due to unfamiliarity b. A child who spits out his mashed potatoes because they taste too salty c. A teenager who grudgingly accepts an offer for an ice cream cone to avoid offending a close friend d. An elderly gentleman who refuses a peanut butter and jelly sandwich because he deems it a child’s food 8. The motive for a person who alters his diet due to religious convictions is most likely his a. values. b. body image. c. ethnic heritage. d. functional association. 9. A person viewing an exciting sports match of her favorite team and eating because of nervousness would be displaying a food choice behavior most likely based on a. habit. b. availability. c. emotional comfort. d. positive association. 10. Approximately what percentage of US consumers eat home-cooked meals at least 3 times per week? a. 20 b. 40 c. 60 d. 80 11. All of the following are examples of functional foods EXCEPT a. tomatoes. b. regular oatmeal. c. regular white bread. d. calcium-fortified juice. 12. What is the term that defines foods that contain nonnutrient substances whose known action in the body is to promote well-being to a greater extent than that contributed by the food’s nutrients? a. Fortified foods b. Enriched foods c. Functional foods d. Health-enhancing foods 13. Nonnutrient substances found in plant foods that show biological activity in the body are commonly known as a. folionutrients. b. inorganic fibers. c. phytochemicals. d. phyllochemicals. 14. By chemical analysis, what nutrient is present in the highest amounts in most foods? a. Fats b. Water c. Proteins d. Carbohydrates 15. Approximately how much water (lbs) would be found in a 120-lb person? a. 12 b. 24 c. 36 d. 72 16. Which of the following is NOT one of the six classes of nutrients? a. Fiber b. Protein c. Minerals d. Vitamins 17. A nutrient needed by the body and that must be supplied by foods is termed a(n) a. neutraceutical. b. metabolic unit. c. organic nutrient. d. essential nutrient. 18. Which of the following is NOT classified as a macronutrient? a. Fat b. Protein c. Calcium d. Carbohydrate 19. Which of the following is an example of a macronutrient? a. Protein b. Calcium c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D 20. Which of the following is classified as a micronutrient? a. Iron b. Protein c. Alcohol d. Carbohydrate 21. Which of the following is an organic compound? a. Salt b. Water c. Calcium d. Vitamin C 22. An essential nutrient is one that cannot be a. found in food. b. degraded by the body. c. made in sufficient quantities by the body. d. used to synthesize other compounds in the body. 23. Which of the following most accurately defines the term organic? a. Products sold at health food stores b. Products grown without use of pesticides c. Foods having superior nutrient qualities d. Substances with carbon-carbon or carbon-hydrogen bonds 24. Which of the following is an organic nutrient? a. Fat b. Water c. Oxygen d. Calcium 25. Approximately how many nutrients are considered indispensable in the diet? a. 15 b. 25 c. 40 d. 55 26. Which of the following cannot add fat to the body? a. Alcohol b. Proteins c. Carbohydrates d. Inorganic nutrients 27. Which of the following is an example of a micronutrient? a. Fat b. Protein c. Vitamin C d. Carbohydrate 28. Which of the following nutrients does not yield energy during its metabolism? a. Fat b. Proteins c. Vitamins d. Carbohydrates 29. How much energy is required to raise the temperature of one kilogram (liter) of water 1° C? a. 10 calories b. 1 kilocalorie c. 10,000 calories d. 1000 kilocalories 30. Gram for gram, which of the following provides the most energy? a. Fats b. Alcohol c. Proteins d. Carbohydrates 31. Food energy is commonly expressed in kcalories and in a. kilojoules. b. kilograms. c. kilometers. d. kilonewtons. 32. International units of energy are expressed in a. newtons. b. calories. c. kilojoules. d. kilocalories. 33. Approximately how many milliliters are contained in a half-cup of milk? a. 50 b. 85 c. 120 d. 200 34. A normal half-cup vegetable portion weighs approximately how many grams? a. 5 b. 50 c. 100 d. 200 35. A weight reduction regimen calls for a daily intake of 1400 kcalories, which includes 30 g of fat. Approximately what percentage of the total energy is contributed by fat? a. 8.5 b. 15 c. 19 d. 25.5 36. A diet provides a total of 2200 kcalories, of which 40% of the energy is from fat and 20% from protein. How many grams of carbohydrate are contained in the diet? a. 220 b. 285 c. 440 d. 880 37. What is the kcalorie value of a meal supplying 110 g of carbohydrates, 25 g of protein, 20 g of fat, and 5 g of alcohol? a. 160 b. 345 c. 560 d. 755 38. Which of the following nutrient sources yields more than 4 kcalories per gram? a. Plant fats b. Plant proteins c. Animal proteins d. Plant carbohydrates 39. Which of the following is a result of the metabolism of energy nutrients? a. Energy is released b. Body fat increases c. Energy is destroyed d. Body water decreases 40. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the composition of most foods? a. They contain only one of the three energy nutrients, although a few contain all of them b. They contain equal amounts of the three energy nutrients, except for high-fat foods c. They contain mixtures of the three energy nutrients, although only one or two may predominate d. They contain only two of the three energy nutrients, although there are numerous other foods that contain only one 41. In the body, the chemical energy in food can be converted to any of the following EXCEPT a. heat energy. b. light energy. c. electrical energy. d. mechanical energy. 42. When consumed in excess, all of the following can be converted to body fat and stored EXCEPT a. sugar. b. corn oil. c. alcohol. d. vitamin C. 43. How many vitamins are known to be required in the diet of human beings? a. 5 b. 8 c. 10 d. 13 44. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the vitamins? a. Essential b. Inorganic c. Destructible d. kCalorie-free 45. Which of the following is a feature of the minerals as nutrients? a. They are organic b. They yield 4 kcalories per gram c. Some become dissolved in body fluids d. Some may be destroyed during cooking 46. How many minerals are known to be required in the diet of human beings? a. 6 b. 12 c. 16 d. 24 47. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the minerals? a. Yield no energy b. Unstable to light c. Stable in cooked foods d. Structurally smaller than vitamins 48. Overcooking a food is least likely to affect which of the following groups of nutrients? a. Vitamins b. Minerals c. Proteins d. Carbohydrates 49. Your friend Carrie took a daily supplement of vitamin C and stated that she felt a lot better. Her experience is best described as a(n) a. anecdote. b. blind experiment. c. nutritional genomic. d. case-control experience. 50. The study of how a person’s genes interact with nutrients is termed a. genetic counseling. b. nutritional genomics. c. genetic metabolomics. d. nutritional nucleic acid pool. 51. What is the meaning of a double-blind experiment? a. Both subject groups take turns getting each treatment b. Neither subjects nor researchers know which subjects are in the control or experimental group c. Neither group of subjects knows whether they are in the control or experimental group, but the researchers do know d. Both subject groups know whether they are in the control or experimental group, but the researchers do not know 52. In the scientific method, a tentative solution to a problem is called the a. theory. b. prediction. c. hypothesis. d. correlation. 53. Among the following, which is the major weakness of a laboratory-based study? a. The costs are usually high b. It is difficult to replicate the findings c. The results cannot be applied to human beings d. Experimental variables cannot be easily controlled 54. What is the benefit of using controls in an experiment? a. The size of the groups can be very large b. The subjects do not know anything about the experiment c. The subjects who are treated are balanced against the placebos d. The subjects are similar in all respects except for the treatment being tested 55. What is the benefit of using a large sample size in an experiment? a. Chance variation is ruled out b. There will be no placebo effect c. The experiment will be double-blind d. The control group will be similar to the experimental group 56. A clinical trial must involve a. tissue cells in culture. b. rats or mice as subjects. c. human beings as subjects. d. computer modeling to design the study. 57. What is the benefit of using placebos in an experiment? a. All subjects are similar b. All subjects receive a treatment c. Neither subjects nor researchers know who is receiving treatment d. One group of subjects receives a treatment and the other group receives nothing 58. In nutrition research, observations of the quantities and types of foods eaten by groups of people and the health status of those groups are known as a. case-control studies. b. epidemiological studies. c. human intervention trials. d. correlation-control studies. 59. You have been asked to help a top nutrition researcher conduct human experiments on vitamin C. As the subjects walk into the laboratory, you distribute all the vitamin C pill bottles to the girls and all the placebo pill bottles to the boys. The researcher instantly informs you that there are two errors in your research practice. What steps should you have done differently? a. Given all the boys the vitamin C and the girls the placebo, and told them what they were getting b. Distributed the bottles randomly, randomized the subjects, and told them what they were getting c. Told the subjects which group they were in, and prevented yourself from knowing the contents of the pill bottles d. Prevented yourself from knowing what was in the pill bottles, and distributed the bottles randomly to the subjects 60. Overeating and gaining body weight is an example of a a. variable effect. b. positive correlation. c. negative correlation. d. randomization effect. 61. An increase in exercise accompanied by a decrease in body weight is an example of a a. variable effect. b. positive correlation. c. negative correlation. d. randomization effect. 62. Before publication in a reputable journal, the findings of a research study must undergo scrutiny by experts in the field according to a process known as a. peer review. b. cohort review. c. intervention examination. d. double-blind examination. 63. Which of the following is NOT a typical part of a research article? a. References b. Speculation c. Introduction d. Review of the literature 64. All of the following sets of values are included in the Dietary Reference Intakes EXCEPT a. AI. b. RDA. c. EAR. d. LUT. 65. Which of the following is NOT a set of values within the Dietary Reference Intakes? a. Adequate Intakes b. Estimated Average Allowances c. Tolerable Upper Intake Levels d. Recommended Dietary Allowances 66. The smallest amount of a nutrient that, when consumed over a prolonged period, maintains a specific function is called the nutrient a. allowance. b. requirement. c. tolerable limit. d. adequate intake. 67. If a group of people consumed an amount of protein equal to the average requirement for their population group, what percentage would receive insufficient amounts? a. 2 b. 33 c. 50 d. 98 68. A health magazine contacted you for your expert opinion on what measure best describes the amounts of nutrients that should be consumed by the population. Your reply should be: a. The Dietary Reference Intakes because they are a set of nutrient intake values for healthy people in the United States and Canada. b. The Tolerable Upper Intake levels because they are the maximum daily amount of a nutrient that appears safe for most healthy people. c. The Estimated Average Requirements because they reflect the average daily amount of a nutrient that will maintain a specific function in half of the healthy people of a population. d. The Recommended Dietary Allowances because they represent the average daily amount of a nutrient considered adequate to meet the known nutrient needs of practically all healthy people. 69. Recommended Dietary Allowances may be used to a. measure nutrient balance of population groups. b. assess dietary nutrient adequacy for individuals. c. treat persons with diet-related illnesses. d. calculate exact food requirements for most individuals. 70. Recommended Dietary Allowances are based on the a. Lower Tolerable Limit. b. Upper Tolerable Limit. c. Subclinical Deficiency Value. d. Estimated Average Requirement. 71. The amount of a nutrient that meets the needs of about 98% of a population is termed the a. Adequate Intake. b. Daily Recommended Value. c. Tolerable Upper Intake Level. d. Recommended Dietary Allowance. 72. The RDA (Recommended Dietary Allowances) for nutrients are generally a. more than twice as high as anyone needs. b. the minimum amounts that average people need. c. designed to meet the needs of almost all healthy people. d. designed to prevent deficiency diseases in half the population. 73. How are the RDA for almost all vitamin and mineral intakes set? a. Low, to reduce the risk of toxicity b. High, to cover virtually all healthy individuals c. Extremely high, to cover every single person d. At the mean, to cover most healthy individuals 74. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Adequate Intake (AI) and the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)? a. Both values exceed the average requirements b. AI values are more tentative than RDA values c. The percentage of people covered is known for both values d. Both values may serve as nutrient intake goals for individuals 75. All of the following features are shared by the RDA and the AI EXCEPT a. both are included in the DRI. b. both serve as nutrient intake goals for individuals. c. neither covers 100% of the population’s nutrient needs. d. neither is useful for evaluating nutrition programs for groups of people. 76. Which of the following is a purpose of both the Recommended Dietary Allowance and Adequate Intake? a. Setting nutrient goals for individuals b. Identifying toxic intakes of nutrients c. Restoring health of malnourished individuals d. Developing nutrition programs for schoolchildren 77. Bob consumes about 2500 kcalories per day, which is apportioned as 150 g of fat, 140 g of carbohydrate, and 150 g of protein. What would be the appropriate revisions to help Bob adjust his nutrient intake so that it matches the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges? a. 70 g fat, 156 g protein, 313 g carbohydrate b. 140 g fat, 150 g protein, 150 g carbohydrate c. 500 g fat, 750 g protein, 1250 g carbohydrate d. 10 g fat, 20 g protein, 45 g carbohydrate 78. Which of the following represents a rationale for DRI energy recommendations? a. Because protein is an energy nutrient, the figures for energy intake are set in proportion to protein intake b. Because a large number of people are overweight, the figures are set to induce a gradual weight loss in most individuals c. Because the energy needs within each population group show little variation, the figures are set to meet the needs of almost all individuals d. Because a margin of safety would result in excess energy intake for a large number of people, the figures are set at the average energy intake 79. What does the Tolerable Upper Intake Level of a nutrient represent? a. The maximum amount allowed for fortifying a food b. A number calculated by taking twice the RDA or three times the AI c. The maximum allowable amount available in supplement form d. The maximum amount from all sources that appears safe for most healthy people 80. What set of values is used to recommend the average kcalorie intake that maintains population groups in energy balance? a. Estimated Energy Requirement b. Adequate Average Requirement c. Recommended Dietary Allowance d. Acceptable Energy Distribution Range 81. The percentages of kcalorie intakes for protein, fat, and carbohydrate that are thought to reduce the risk of chronic diseases are termed the a. Estimated Energy Requirements. b. Tolerable Range of Kilocalorie Intakes. c. Estimated Energy Nutrient Recommendations. d. Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges. 82. What is the AMDR for carbohydrate? a. 5-10% b. 15-25% c. 30-40% d. 45-65% 83. Which of the following figures falls within the carbohydrate range of the AMDR? a. 35% b. 50% c. 70% d. 90% 84. What is the AMDR for protein? a. 10-35% b. 40-45% c. 50-65% d. 70-85% 85. What is the upper range of fat intake in the AMDR? a. 20% b. 25% c. 35% d. 50% 86. What is the AMDR for fat? a. 10-30% b. 20-35% c. 40-55% d. 60-75% 87. If a person consumed the upper AMDR limit for protein as part of a diet providing 2500 kcalories, approximately how many grams of protein would be ingested? a. 41 b. 63 c. 135 d. 219 88. Which statement about the recommended nutrient intakes is FALSE? a. The recommendations also apply to sick people b. The recommendations are designed to be met through intake of foods and not supplements c. It is difficult and unnecessary to meet the recommended intakes for all nutrients each day d. The recommendations are neither minimum requirements nor necessarily optimal intakes for everybody 89. The Dietary Reference Intakes may be used to a. treat people with diet-related disorders. b. assess adequacy of all required nutrients. c. plan and evaluate diets for healthy people. d. assess adequacy of only vitamins and minerals. 90. Which of the following is used to detect nutrient deficiencies? a. Assessment techniques b. Nutrient stages identification c. Overt symptoms identification d. Outward manifestations assessment 91. As a registered dietitian at Jones Hospital, you are instructed to write a policy statement on nutrition assessment procedures for all new patients. Which of the following are the most useful parameters for the nutrition assessment of individuals? a. Diet recall, food likes and dislikes, allergies, favorite family recipes b. Anthropometric data, physical examinations, food likes and dislikes, family tree c. Diet record that includes what the patient usually eats, which will provide sufficient information d. Historical information, anthropometric data, physical examinations, laboratory tests 92. Which of the following is an anthropometric measure? a. Body weight b. Blood pressure c. Blood iron level d. Food intake information 93. Inspection of hair, eyes, skin, and posture is part of the nutrition assessment component known as a. diet history. b. anthropometrics. c. biochemical testing. d. physical examination. 94. Which of the following is used to determine the presence of abnormal functions inside the body due to a nutrient deficiency? a. Diet history b. Laboratory tests c. Body weight loss d. Physical examination 95. Which of the following represents the usual sequence of stages in the development of a nutrient deficiency resulting from inadequate intake? a. Declining nutrient stores, abnormal functions within the body, and overt signs b. Abnormal functions within the body, declining nutrient stores, and overt signs c. Abnormal functions within the body, overt signs, and declining nutrient stores d. Declining nutrient stores, overt signs, and abnormal functions within the body 96. Which of the following would most likely lead to a primary nutrient deficiency? a. Inadequate nutrient intake b. Reduced nutrient absorption c. Increased nutrient excretion d. Increased nutrient destruction 97. What type of deficiency is caused by inadequate absorption of a nutrient? a. Primary b. Clinical c. Secondary d. Subclinical 98. A subclinical nutrient deficiency is defined as one that a. shows overt signs. b. is in the early stages. c. shows resistance to treatment. d. is similar to a secondary deficiency. 99. Which of the following is an overt symptom of iron deficiency? a. Anemia b. Headaches c. Skin dryness d. Decreased red blood cell count 100. To identify early-stage malnutrition, a health professional would use which of the following parameters? a. Laboratory tests b. Anthropometric data c. Physical exam results d. Review of dietary intake data 101. What entity coordinates nutrition-related research activities of federal agencies? a. U.S. Public Health Service b. Food and Drug Administration c. Dietary Reference Intakes committee d. The National Nutrition Monitoring program 102. The goal of Healthy People is to a. establish the DRI. b. identify national trends in food consumption. c. identify leading causes of death in the United States. d. set goals for the nation’s health over the next 10 years. 103. Which of the following does NOT describe a national trend in eating habits of Americans? a. We eat larger portions b. We snack more frequently c. We eat more high-fiber foods d. We eat more meals away from home 104. The 5 most common causes of death today in the United States include all of the following EXCEPT a. stroke. b. cancer. c. suicide. d. heart disease. 105. Of the ten leading causes of illness and death, how many are associated directly with nutrition? a. 1 b. 4 c. 7 d. 10 106. Which of the following leading causes of death in the U.S. does NOT bear a relationship to diet? a. Cancer b. Heart disease c. Diabetes mellitus d. Pneumonia and influenza 107. Factors known to be related to a disease but not proven to be causal are called a. risk factors. b. genetic factors. c. degenerative factors. d. environmental factors. 108. Which of the following statements defines the association between a risk factor and the development of a disease? a. All people with the risk factor will develop the disease b. The absence of a risk factor guarantees freedom from the disease c. The more risk factors for a disease, the greater the chance of developing that disease d. The presence of a factor such as heredity can be modified to lower the risk of degenerative diseases 109. Which of the following factors makes the greatest contribution to deaths in the United States? a. Guns b. Alcohol c. Tobacco d. Automobiles 110. What single behavior contributes to the most deaths in the United States? a. Poor diet b. Tobacco use c. Alcohol intake d. Sexual activity 111. Who would be the most appropriate person to consult regarding nutrition information? a. Chiropractor b. Medical doctor c. Registered dietitian d. Health food store manager 112. All of the following are minimum requirements for becoming a registered dietitian EXCEPT a. earning an undergraduate degree. b. completing up to a three-week clinical internship or the equivalent. c. completing approximately 60 semester hours in nutrition and food science. d. passing a national examination administered by the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics. 113. Which of the following describes the legal limitations, if any, for a person who disseminates dietary advice to the public? a. The title “dietitian” can be used by anyone in all states b. The title “nutritionist” can be used by anyone in all states c. A license to practice as a nutritionist or dietitian is required by some states d. A license to practice as a nutritionist or dietitian is mandatory in all states 114. Which of the following individuals is most likely to possess the least amount of nutrition training? a. Dietetic technician b. Registered dietician c. Certified nutritionist d. Dietetic technician, registered 115. For which of the following titles, by definition, must the individual be college educated and pass a national examination administered by the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics? a. Medical doctor b. Registered dietician c. Certified nutritionist d. Certified nutrition therapist 116. Which of the following best describes a college-educated nutrition and food specialist who is qualified to make evaluations of the nutritional health of people? a. Registered dietitian b. Licensed nutritionist c. Master of nutrient utilization d. Doctor of food and nutritional sciences 117. A person who assists registered dietitians has the formal title of a. dietetic assistant. b. nutrition assistant. c. dietetic technician. d. nutrition technician. 118. All of the following are recognized, credible sources of nutrition information EXCEPT a. Who’s Who in Nutrition. b. the Food and Drug Administration. c. the United States Department of Agriculture. d. the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics. Matching 1. Nutrient with the highest body concentration 2. Substance containing no carbon or not pertaining to living things 3. Number of indispensable nutrients for human beings 4. Most substances containing carbon-hydrogen bonds 5. Substance containing nitrogen 6. Energy (kcal) required to increase temperature of 1 kg of water from 0° C to 100° C 7. Nutrient with the highest energy density 8. Energy (kcal) yield of five grams of sugar 9. Energy (kcal) yield of one gram of alcohol 10. Number of indispensable minerals for human beings 11. An unproven statement 12. An inert medication 13. Possessing the quality of being evidence based 14. The recommended intake is set at the population mean 15. Excess nutrient intake leads to this 16. Deficient nutrient intake leads to this 17. Measurement of physical characteristics 18. Inspection of skin, tongue, eyes, hair, and fingernails 19. A nutrient deficiency showing outward signs 20. A nutrient deficiency in the early stages A. 7 B. 16 C. 20 D. 40 E. 100 F. Fat G. Water H. Energy I. Protein J. Organic K. Placebo L. Inorganic M. Validity N. Hypothesis O. Undernutrition P. Overnutrition Q. Anthropometrics R. Overt deficiency S. Physical examination T. Subclinical deficiency Essay 1. Describe six behavioral or social motives governing people’s food choices. 2. Explain how food choices are influenced by habits, emotions, physical appearance, and ethnic background. 3. Discuss some of the consequences of eating in response to emotions. 4. Define the term organic. How do the properties of vitamins relate to their organic nature? Contrast these points with the properties of inorganic compounds such as minerals. 5. List the strengths and weaknesses of epidemiological studies, laboratory-based studies, and clinical trials. 6. Explain the importance of the placebo and the double-blind technique in carrying out research studies. 7. Describe the steps involved in establishing nutrient values that make up the Dietary Reference Intakes. 8. Compare and contrast the meaning of Adequate Intakes, Recommended Dietary Allowances, Estimated Average Requirements, and Tolerable Upper Intake Levels for nutrients. 9. What approach is taken in setting recommendations for energy intakes? Why is this approach taken? How does this approach differ from that taken for other nutrients? 10. Compare and contrast the rationales underlying dietary recommendations for individuals versus those for populations. 11. List and discuss four methods commonly used to assess nutritional status of individuals. 12. Discuss how the results from national nutrition surveys are used by private and government agencies and groups. 13. List the national trends of food consumption over the past 40 years. 14. List 10 goals of the Healthy People program. How successful is the program thus far? 15. Discuss the meaning and significance of the relationships between risk factors and chronic diseases. 16. List ways to identify a reliable nutrition information website. 17. A. List techniques that help identify nutrition quackery. B. Where can you find reliable sources of nutrition information? 18. A. Explain the education and training requirements associated with obtaining registration as a dietitian. B. List several career areas in which registered dietitians are often employed. Answer Key (ANS = correct answer, REF = page reference, DIF = difficulty, OBJ = learning objective) Multiple Choice 1. ANS: c REF: 3 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.0 2. ANS: b REF: 4 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.1 3. ANS: d REF: 3 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.0 4. ANS: d REF: 5 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.1 5. ANS: c REF: 5 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.1 6. ANS: a REF: 4 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.1 7. ANS: d REF: 5 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.1 8. ANS: a REF: 5 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.1 9. ANS: c REF: 5 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.1 10. ANS: d REF: 5 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.1 11. ANS: c REF: 6 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.1 12. ANS: c REF: 6 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.1 13. ANS: c REF: 6 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.1 14. ANS: b REF: 6 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 15. ANS: d REF: 6-7 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.2 16. ANS: a REF: 6 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 17. ANS: d REF: 8 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.2 18. ANS: c REF: 8 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.2 19. ANS: a REF: 8 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.2 20. ANS: a REF: 8|11 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.2 21. ANS: d REF: 7 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.2 22. ANS: c REF: 8 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.2 23. ANS: d REF: 7 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.2 24. ANS: a REF: 7 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.2 25. ANS: c REF: 8 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 26. ANS: d REF: 8-9|10 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.2 27. ANS: c REF: 8 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.2 28. ANS: c REF: 8 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 29. ANS: b REF: 8 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.2 30. ANS: a REF: 8 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 31. ANS: a REF: 9 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 32. ANS: c REF: 9 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 33. ANS: c REF: 9 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 34. ANS: c REF: 9 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 35. ANS: c REF: 10 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.2 36. ANS: a REF: 10 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.2 37. ANS: d REF: 9-10 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.2 38. ANS: a REF: 8 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.2 39. ANS: a REF: 10 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.2 40. ANS: c REF: 10 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.2 41. ANS: b REF: 10 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 42. ANS: d REF: 10 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 43. ANS: d REF: 11 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 44. ANS: b REF: 11 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 45. ANS: c REF: 11 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 46. ANS: c REF: 11 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 47. ANS: b REF: 7|11 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.2 48. ANS: b REF: 11 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.2 49. ANS: a REF: 12 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.3 50. ANS: b REF: 12 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.3 51. ANS: b REF: 13|15 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.3 52. ANS: c REF: 12 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.3 53. ANS: c REF: 14 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.3 54. ANS: d REF: 12|15 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.3 55. ANS: a REF: 15 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.3 56. ANS: c REF: 14 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.3 57. ANS: b REF: 15 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.3 58. ANS: b REF: 14 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.3 59. ANS: d REF: 15 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.3 60. ANS: b REF: 15 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.3 61. ANS: c REF: 15 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.3 62. ANS: a REF: 16 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.3 63. ANS: b REF: 16 DIF: Knowledge level OBJ: 1.3 64. ANS: d REF: 17 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 65. ANS: b REF: 17 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 66. ANS: b REF: 17-18 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 67. ANS: c REF: 18 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.4 68. ANS: d REF: 18-19 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.4 69. ANS: b REF: 18-19 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.4 70. ANS: d REF: 18 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 71. ANS: d REF: 18 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 72. ANS: c REF: 18 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 73. ANS: b REF: 18-19 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 74. ANS: c REF: 19 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 75. ANS: d REF: 18-19 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 76. ANS: a REF: 18-19 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 77. ANS: a REF: 20 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.4 78. ANS: d REF: 20 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.4 79. ANS: d REF: 19 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 80. ANS: a REF: 20 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 81. ANS: d REF: 20 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 82. ANS: d REF: 20 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 83. ANS: b REF: 20 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.4 84. ANS: a REF: 20 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 85. ANS: c REF: 20 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 86. ANS: b REF: 20 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 87. ANS: d REF: 20 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.4 88. ANS: a REF: 20-21 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 89. ANS: c REF: 20-21 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 90. ANS: a REF: 22 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.5 91. ANS: d REF: 22 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.5 92. ANS: a REF: 22 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.5 93. ANS: d REF: 22-23 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.5 94. ANS: b REF: 23 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.5 95. ANS: a REF: 23-24 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.5 96. ANS: a REF: 23 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.5 97. ANS: c REF: 23 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.5 98. ANS: b REF: 23 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.5 99. ANS: b REF: 23|24 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.5 100. ANS: a REF: 23 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.5 101. ANS: d REF: 24 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.5 102. ANS: d REF: 24 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.5 103. ANS: c REF: 24 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.5 104. ANS: c REF: 25 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.6 105. ANS: b REF: 25 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.6 106. ANS: d REF: 25 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.6 107. ANS: a REF: 26 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.6 108. ANS: c REF: 26 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.6 109. ANS: c REF: 26 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.6 110. ANS: b REF: 26 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.6 111. ANS: c REF: 30 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.7 112. ANS: b REF: 30 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.7 113. ANS: c REF: 30 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.7 114. ANS: c REF: 30-31 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.7 115. ANS: b REF: 30-31 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.7 116. ANS: a REF: 30-31 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.7 117. ANS: c REF: 31 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.7 118. ANS: a REF: 32 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.7 Matching 1. ANS: G REF: 7 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 2. ANS: L REF: 7 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 3. ANS: D REF: 8 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 4. ANS: J REF: 7 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 5. ANS: I REF: 7 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 6. ANS: E REF: 8 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.2 7. ANS: F REF: 8 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 8. ANS: C REF: 8|10 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 1.2 9. ANS: A REF: 9 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 10. ANS: B REF: 11 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 11. ANS: N REF: 12|13 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.3 12. ANS: K REF: 13 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.3 13. ANS: M REF: 13 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.3 14. ANS: H REF: 20 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 15. ANS: P REF: 21 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.5 16. ANS: O REF: 21 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.5 17. ANS: Q REF: 22 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.5 18. ANS: S REF: 22-23 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.5 19. ANS: R REF: 23 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.5 20. ANS: T REF: 23 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.5 Essay 1. REF: 4-6 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.1 2. REF: 4-6 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.1 3. REF: 5 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.1 4. REF: 7|11 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.2 5. REF: 12-15 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.3 6. REF: 15 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.3 7. REF: 17-20 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 8. REF: 17-19 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 9. REF: 20 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 10. REF: 20-21 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.4 11. REF: 22-23 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.5 12. REF: 24 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.5 13. REF: 24 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.5 14. REF: 24-25 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.5 15. REF: 26 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.6 16. REF: 29 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.7 17. REF: 31-32 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.7 18. REF: 30-31 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 1.7