Clinical Massage Therapy: A Structural Approach to Pain Management

1. The key to structural balance is most likely which of the following A) lumbar stabilization B) sacral stabilization C) pelvic stabilization D) spinal stabilization 2. Placing a bolster under a clients hips during pelvic stabilization achieves which of the following A) Prevents bone spurs. B) Compresses the lumbar spine. C) Stretches the psoas minor. D) Decompresses the lumbar spine. 3. Protrusions or enlargements of bone and cartilage that develop in a degenerative joint are known as which of the following A) bulging discs B) osteophytes C) herniated discs D) joint capsules 4. What percentage of adults will experience back or neck pain A) 20 percent B) 40 percent C) 60 percent D) 80 percent 5. A disc in which the nucleus pulposus, or spongy center of the disc, extrudes into the spinal canal is known as which of the following A) herniated disc B) bulging disc C) degenerated disc D) thinning disc 6. Which muscle group should be addressed first in pelvic stabilization A) hamstrings B) psoas major, iliacus (iliopsoas), and joint capsule C) quadriceps and iliotibial band (ITB) D) quadratus lumborum (QL) and erector spinae 7. Which muscle originates on the iliac fossa and inserts on the lesser trochanter of the femur A) iliacus B) psoas major C) psoas minor D) sartorius 8. You are working with a client who is experiencing anterior pelvic tilt and sacroiliac joint pain. Which muscle should you suspect is involved A) psoas major B) piriformis C) iliacus D) gluteus medius 9. Which of the following can be used as a massage tool to soften and mobilize deep fascial adhesions of the hip joint capsule A) a Thera-Band B) the head of the clients femur C) the therapists elbow D) the therapists fist 10. Which of the following is involved in performing the iliacus release A) The client is prone with legs straight. B) The therapist palpates the head of the femur. C) The therapist presses into the psoas using a thumb. D) The therapist pins the fascia directly onto the inside of the ilium. 11. To perform the psoas release, the therapist should do which of the following A) Pin the psoas with the finger pads and help the client push the heel down onto the table into hip extension. B) Pin the iliacus with the finger pads and help the client drop the heel down onto the table and drag it toward hip extension. C) Use the head of the femur in a mortar and pestle approach to release hip joint adhesions. D) Place one hand under the clients knee and the other on the clients hip, pulling the hip inferiorly and laterally and then stabilizing it. 12. Where does the quadratus lumborum originate A) twelfth rib B) transverse processes of L1 to L4 C) posterior iliac crest D) transverse process of L5 13. Which group of muscles run from the sacrum to the occiput along the spine and extend and laterally flex the vertebral column A) lateral hip rotators B) hamstrings C) medial hip rotators D) erector spine 14. A tight quadratus lumborum will tend to do which of the following A) Elevate the shoulder. B) Tilt the pelvis anteriorly. C) Tilt the pelvis posteriorly. D) Elevate the hip. 15. Which lateral hip rotator lies above and can compress the sciatic nerve when tight A) gemellus inferior B) gemellus superior C) obturator externus D) piriformis 16. Ideal range of motion at the hip is _____ degrees of internal hip rotation and _____ degrees of external hip rotation. A) 15 30 B) 20 40 C) 45 60 D) 75 90 17. The medial hip rotators include the adductors, along with gluteus medius, gluteus minimis, and which other muscle A) quadratus femoris B) obturator internus C) tensor fasciae latae D) quadratus lumborum 18. Which of the following muscles is a member of the quadriceps group A) iliotibial band B) psoas major C) rectus femoris D) iliacus 19. Pain on the lateral side of the knee is caused by excessive stress or when which muscle is tight and contracted A) tensor fasciae latae B) rectus femoris C) piriformis D) iliotibial band 20. Why is the quadriceps stretch performed passively A) to prevent straining these muscles B) because it is too complicated to have the client do it actively C) because the client cannot physically perform the stretch on his or her own D) to prevent the hamstrings from cramping 21. Often, symptoms of patellar tendinosis do NOT surface until the client performs which of the following A) Lies prone and contracts the quadriceps against resistance. B) Lies supine and has the therapist perform a passive range of motion assessment. C) Sits up from a supine position. D) Performs a weight-bearing test to the quadriceps. 22. Which muscle group extends the hip, flexes the knee, and posteriorly rotates the pelvis A) quadriceps B) hamstrings C) erector spine D) hip adductors 23. When performing the eccentric scar tissue alignment, the therapist should say which of the following to the client A) Barely resist, but let me win. B) Relax your muscle and let me win. C) Resist as hard as you can try to win. D) Resist until you feel pain then, let me win. 24. Which of the following can the client use to perform the quadriceps and distal hamstrings stretches A) a chair B) a dumbbell C) a belt D) athletic shoes 25. When would be the best time for the client to stretch A) after a warm shower B) after a cold shower C) just after waking in the morning D) after sitting for several hours 26. Which muscle or muscles are stretched when the client, in a standing position with one arm raised straight, bends sideways for about 2 seconds A) iliacus B) quadratus lumborum C) quadriceps D) hamstrings 27. If the client cannot attain 90 degrees of hip flexion and full extension, the problem is usually tightness in which muscles A) tensor fascia latae and iliotibial band B) psoas and iliacus C) gastrocnemius and distal hamstrings D) quadratus lumborum and erector spine 28. Which muscle is a member of the hamstrings group A) biceps femoris B) rectus femoris C) vastus intermedius D) vastus lateralis 29. When performing myofascial release on the erector spine, which of the following should the therapist look for as an indication that the vertebrae are in alignment A) The clients shoulders are vertically aligned. B) The lamina groove feels smooth. C) The clients hips are vertically aligned. D) The clients pain is relieved. 30. What technique should the therapist use to help the clients intervertebral discs decompress and possibly spontaneously realign A) trigger point compression B) multidirectional friction C) stretching D) gentle rocking PAGE PAGE 1