Test Bank

1 Test Bank to accompany the Second Edition of Frank J. Landy & Jeffrey M. Conte’s Work in the 21st Century: An Introduction to Industrial and Organizational Psychology For each chapter in the Second Edition of Landy and Conte’s Work in the 21st Century: An Introduction to Industrial and Organizational Psychology, this test bank contains multiple choice questions that can be used in composing tests. Each chapter includes factual and applied questions as well as questions of a more conceptual nature to facilitate critical thinking. Several questions address the same or similar material, so instructors likely will want to choose one of the items for inclusion in a test. The correct answer for each question is indicated by an “*” next to that response option. Questions or comments regarding this test bank can be sent to Jeff Conte at jconte@sunstroke.sdsu.edu. CHAPTER 1: WHAT IS I-O PSYCHOLOGY? Module 1.1 1. According to the textbook, when people were asked the question: “If you were to get enough money to live as comfortably as you would like for the rest of your life, would you continue to work or would you stop working?” a majority people reported that they would stop working. they would continue working.* they would find a new and more exciting job. they would take a lot of time off, but eventually return to work. 2. Industrial-organizational psychologists are interested in all of the following except how people’s work affects their home life. how culture influences people’s perceptions of their working environments. how personality characteristics influence work behavior. how to best diagnose clinical disorders and offer therapy to employees.* 3. Which of the following does not describe a position that an I-O psychologist would typically have? research scientist consultant professor therapist* 4. Dr. Duran was asked by company X to develop a selection system for hiring new employees and to revise the existing performance appraisal system. Dr. Duran was most likely asked to do this because of her experience in human factors psychology. personnel psychology.* clinical psychology. organizational psychology. 5. An organizational psychologist would be most likely concerned with helping people organize their schedules and daily planners. studying the interaction between humans and technology. understanding the emotional and motivational side of work.* interviewing potential employees. 6. Which of the following psychologists is most likely concerned with how humans interact with technology? a. a personnel psychologist b. a clinical psychologist c. an organizational psychologist d. a human factors psychologist* 7. Company Y has just designed a new checkout counter for a chain of supermarkets. This new checkout counter will allow the employees to scan and bag groceries more efficiently. Development of the new checkout counter was most likely done by a(n) personnel psychologist. organizational psychologist. human resources director. human factors psychologist.* 8. SIOP is Division 14 of the American Psychological Association.* American Psychological Society. Industrial-Organizational Psychologist. Western Psychological Association. 9. The division of the American Psychological Association that represents Industrial-Organizational psychology is Division 14.* Division 3. Division 10. Division 17. 10. The SIOP website is a good place for aspiring I-O psychologists to examine. All of the following are offered by the website except JobNet — matching employers with applicants. a list of SIOP publications. online I-O psychology courses.* TIP — the SIOP quarterly newsletter. 11. James McKeen Cattell had a major influence on the emergence of I-O psychology. He was among the first to realize the importance of studying: a. American organizations as representative of Japanese organizations. b. differences among individuals as a way of predicting their behavior.* c. how organizations treat their employees as related to employee performance. d. individual beliefs in understanding the work-family relationship. 12. The purpose of the time and motion studies was to a. increase efficiency. b. increase productivity. c. neither a nor b d. both a and b* 13. The main distinction between the Army Alpha and the Army Beta is the Army Alpha was administered to illiterate recruits, while the Army Beta was administered to literate recruits. the Army Alpha was administered to literate recruits, while the Army Beta was administered to illiterate recruits.* the Army Alpha was designed to measure how people responded to stress, while the Army Beta measured people’s reaction times. the Army Alpha was designed to measure people’s reaction times, while the Army Beta measured people’s reactions to stress. 14. A major distinction between the Stanford-Binet and the Army Alpha test is the Stanford-Binet was administered to one individual at a time, whereas the Army Alpha could be administered to large groups.* the Stanford-Binet could be administered to large groups of people whereas the Army Alpha could only be administered to one individual at a time. the Stanford-Binet was developed for assessing individuals’ emotional reactions to stress whereas the Army Alpha tested intelligence. the Stanford-Binet was developed for testing dexterity whereas the Army Alpha was developed for assessing individuals’ emotional reactions to stress. 15. Jack works 12 hour shifts on an assembly line at an automotive plant. He finds his job boring, monotonous, and physically difficult. He is extremely unhappy and resists any attempts his bosses make to increase the productivity of the assembly line. Jack’s mental state could be best characterized as the Hawthorne effect. revery obsession.* the Cattell effect. systematic desensitization. 16. The Hawthorne Studies led to the dramatic discovery that a. boring work is directly related to a worker’s level of interest. b. a worker’s family situation impacts their level of production. c. higher productivity can only be achieved by varying worker conditions. d. workers’ attitudes play a role in productivity.* 17. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits discrimination against all of the following except a. race. b. disability.* c. religion. d. gender. 18. Title VII of The Civil Rights Act of 1964 deals with employment discrimination.* voting rights. education. housing. 19. Which section of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 deals with employment discrimination? a. Title VI b. Title VII* c. Title IX d. Title X 20. Frederick W. Taylor’s book on Scientific Management offered the one best and most efficient way to perform various jobs.* assessment centers to recruit and train spies for the U.S. government. a standardization of airplane cockpits. a systematic approach to understanding differences among subjects’ responses to external stimuli. 21. The Time and Motion studies involved all the following except developing more efficient movements that would reduce fatigue and increase productivity. timing movements with a stopwatch. breaking down every action into its constituent parts. investigating employee attitudes about the length of the work week.* 22. “Protected groups,” as stated in Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, include race, sexual orientation, color, political ideology. race , age, color, sex, national origin. race, color, religion, sex, national origin.* race, color, disability status, sex, religion. Module 1.2 23. Which of the following statements is false? Work performance can be monitored electronically. Personal computers and digitization now dominate the workplace. There is little stability in many business sectors. Increasingly less work is done by teams as opposed to individuals.* 24. David is a Fine Arts major who will be graduating in a year. He recently became interested in pursuing a graduate degree in I-O psychology. David should do all of the following to improve his “credentials” for admittance to a graduate program except assume that his credentials are fine since his GRE scores are excellent.* become a research assistant to a professor. obtain an internship with a local business in the HR department. enroll in as many I-O psychology classes as he can. 25. A system of beliefs in which individuals share meaning and common ways of viewing objects is known as nationality. culture.* multiculturalism. individualism. Module 1.3 26. The implications of a “global economy” are important to the field I-O psychology because systems within a company that train, motivate, and reward employees need to be compatible with many different cultures.* the global economy is allowing countries to exist without economic connections to other countries. the North American Free Trade Area (NAFTA) has put major restrictions on the movement of goods between countries. the development of the European Union has made relocation more difficult for people trying to cross the borders of the former Soviet Union. 27. American managers and professionals assigned to work in locations outside of the United States are referred to as a. expatriates.* b. legal aliens. c. Immigrants. d. satellite Americans. 28. John works for a major investment firm located in the United States. He has recently been reassigned to the firm’s office in Eastern Asia. John will most likely be successful in his new environment if he tries to adapt to East Asian culture.* maintains a “West vs. the Rest” mentality. has a low tolerance for novel experiences. maintains his American identity in all situations. 29. Dr. Duran, an I-O psychologist, has developed a successful theory that directly relates to an American company based out of Nebraska. Yet when she tries to apply the same theory to a Russian company, she is unsuccessful. What might this situation most likely be attributed to? a. “West versus the Rest” mentality* b. self-absorption syndrome c. Russian culture is inherently dissimilar from American culture. d. The original theory was not sound. 30. A culture that values the group more than the individual is known as collectivist.* individualist. horizontal. vertical. 31. John prefers to work alone and to make his own decisions at work, while Jennifer prefers to consult her work group prior to making any decisions. Jennifer would likely fit best in which type of culture? a. individualist b. collectivist* c. socialist d. egocentric 32. Which of the following of Hofstede’s dimensions did Triandis suggest would likely interact with the horizontal/vertical cultural dimension? long-term versus short-term orientation masculinity/femininity individual/collectivism* uncertainty avoidance 33. _____ cultures values the group more than the individual. Individualist Collectivist* Masculine Feminine 34. One reason that placing cultures on a collectivist–individualist continuum would be useful for managers is that it would enable them to provide effective rewards to people of various cultures.* fix the problems that are associated with revery obsession. provide a method for testing large groups of people at one time. provide a method for testing individuals one at a time. 35. All of the following are dimensions included in Hofstede’s theory of culture except individualism/collectivism. uncertainty avoidance. long-term versus short-term orientation. inferior versus superior.* 36. Cultures in which people, relationships, and the environment are most important can be best characterized as horizontal cultures. vertical cultures. masculine cultures. feminine cultures.* Module 1.4 37. As an organizational psychologist, Dr. Hendry also includes the human engineering and personnel perspectives in his analyses. What type of approach does she adhere to? triangulation approach triad approach advanced approach unified approach* CHAPTER 2: METHODS AND STATISTICS IN I-O PSYCHOLOGY Module 2.1 1. “Disinterestedness” refers to the notion that lay persons find scientific research hard to understand, and therefore are not interested in it. people who belong to an organized religion find that science often contradicts many of the religion’s core beliefs. scientists should be objective and not influenced by biases or prejudices.* employee motivation tends to decrease the longer people work for a particular company. 2. The expectation that scientists will be objective and not influenced by biases or prejudices is called a. hypothesize. b. disinterestedness.* c. discrimination. d. adverse impact. 3. In order for an expert to present a theory as legal testimony, the theory must meet all of the following requirements except it must have been published in scholarly journals. it must have been subjected to scientific scrutiny that offers plausible alternative explanations. it must be replicable, that is the findings can be repeated by other scientists. it must be statistically significant at the 0.5 level.* 4. A Daubert Challenge, in which opposing lawyers ask the judge to prevent the expert witness from voicing an opinion in front of a jury, is based on the assumption that a. jury members may be swayed by an expert whose testimony about a topic cannot be considered a legitimate scientific topic.* b. jury members are not swayed by expert testimony, and that any information an expert provides will be interpreted objectively. c. most research is done using methods that are not able to be replicated by other researchers. d. scientific jargon tends to be cumbersome and difficult to understand. Module 2.2 5. According to the text, research designs in I-O psychology can be broken down into three basic types: block design, clinical interviews, archival research. post hoc, a priori, experimental. t-tests, f-tests, chi square. experimental, quasi-experimental, non experimental.* 6. Dr. Baldwin is interested in studying the effects of a new medication. He randomly assigns participants to two groups. One group receives the medication while the other receives a placebo. Fernando’s research can be best described as a(n) experimental design.* quasi-experimental design. field study. non-experimental design. 7. Jake wants to establish a cause-effect relationship between two variables. He should use _______________ to establish causation between the two variables. a regression analysis a non-experimental design an experimental design* a quasi-experimental design 8. An important distinction between an experimental design and a quasi-experimental design is that unlike a quasi-experimental design, an experimental design randomly assigns participants to groups.* unlike a quasi-experimental design, an experimental design does not randomly assign participants to groups. a quasi-experimental design focuses on past events, while an experimental design makes predictions about future events. a quasi-experimental design focuses on future events while an experimental design makes predictions about future events. 9. An independent variable is the term used to describe the variable that a researcher manipulates.* describe the variable a researcher measures. describe the variable that is not accounted for. describe a variable that cannot be quantitative. 10. A research design that includes a manipulated independent variable, but does not have random assignment, is called a(n) experiment. quasi-experiment.* non-experiment. meta-analysis. 11. Dr. Hendry is a psychologist conducting research on pay rates and employee satisfaction. She randomly assigns new employees to one of two different salaries, and she also keeps all other factors constant. The design that best describes her research is a. experimental.* b. quasi-experimental. c. part experimental. d. non-experimental. 12. Rebecca is observing and recording how many times a group of workers engage in non-work related behavior over a period of a week. Rebecca is using a(n) experimental design. observational design.* quasi-experimental design. survey design. 13. A research design in which a worker is asked to complete a questionnaire is a(n) survey design.* experimental design. observational design. correlational design. 14. Observational design and survey design are two types of experiment. quasi-experiment. non-experiment.* meta-analysis. 15. When workers are given questionnaires to assess their satisfaction with the current level of job satisfaction, the research design used is a(n) observational design. survey design.* quasi-experiment. non-experiment. 16. An observational design is a type of a. experimental design. b. quasi-experimental design. c. part experimental design. d. non-experimental design.* 17. A study by Schaubroeck and Kuehn (1992) found that the majority of published studies by I-O psychologists were ______ and took place in _________ settings. non-experimental; laboratory non-experimental; field* experimental; laboratory experimental; field 18. The use of “samples of convenience” typically leads to strong cause-effect relationships. weak cause-effect relationships.* no cause-effect relationships. absolute cause-effect relationships. 19. In the early days of psychology, experimenters would record their own thoughts and experiences while completing an experimental task. This experimental method is called a. inversion. b. quantitative method. c. introspection.* d. triangulation. 20. When a researcher is trying to develop an understanding of a phenomenon, it is best to: make use of only quantitative data. make use of only qualitative data. make use of all the information available, regardless of form.* make use of research conducted only in the last 5 years. 21. An approach used by researchers seeking converging information from many different sources is referred to as introspection. observational design. triangulation.* statistical power. 22. The process used by I-O psychologists to develop an understanding of a job by identifying the duties of the job and the KSAOs required to perform the job is called a(n) job analysis.* job evaluation. job incumbent. job formulation. 23. Which sample would yield results with the most generalizability? a. a small non-representative sample b. a large non-representative sample c. a small representative sample d. a large representative sample* 24. To maximize the extent to which results of an experiment can be generalized to a larger population, the researcher should do all the following except sample people from many different organizations. sample people with many different job titles. sample people who work in different departments of an organization. sample only one small group of people.* 25. Eliminating confounding variables in the laboratory setting is done via: sample control. statistical control. experimental control.* triangulation. Module 2.3 26. As a convention, when visually describing a distribution of scores or numbers, researchers will set the frequency of the scores on the ______axis and the score or numbers associated with a particular criterion on the ____ axis. X(horizontal), Y(vertical) Y(vertical), X(horizontal)* Y(horizontal), X(vertical) X(vertical), Y(horizontal) 27. The most frequently occurring score within a distribution is the mean. mode.* median. modality. 28. The standard deviation refers to the typical amount of deviation from the mean.* the extent to which two groups differ on a given variable. the most frequently occurring score in a distribution. the extent to which an observed event can be due to chance. 29. The shape of a distribution with a large standard deviation would look wide, in that the distribution covers a large range of scores.* tall and peaked around the mean. tall and peaked to the left of the mean. tall and peaked to the right of the mean. 30. A score that always falls at the 50th percentile in a distribution is called the skew. mean. mode. median.* 31. What is the mean of the following data set? 1, 2, 2, 7, 2, 4 a. 2 b. 3* c. 4 d. 5 32. The standard deviation of a distribution is 4. Therefore, the variance of the distribution is 2. 4. 16.* 64. 33. The variance of a distribution is the squared standard deviation.* the most frequently occurring score. the typical amount of deviation from a mean score. a negative number describing how much a score deviates from a mean score. 34. Erin is testing her hypothesis that people who listen to music while on the job perform better than people who do not listen to music. The best way she can draw an inference about the relationship between music and performance would be to use measures of central tendency. standard deviation. inferential statistics.* factor analysis. 35. T-test, analyses of variance, and chi-square tests are all examples of sample statistics. experimental statistics. descriptive statistics. inferential statistics.* 36. To increase the statistical power of a test, researchers should increase the number of participants.* decrease the number of participants. use only quantitative data to test their hypotheses. calculate the mean and standard deviation to test their hypotheses. 37. If the correlation between two variables is .90, this means that there is a strong association between the two variables.* weak association between the two variables. strong causal relationship between the two variables. weak causal relationship between the two variables. 38. Dr. Duran, an I-O psychologist, found that as job satisfaction increases, employee absenteeism decreases. This is an example of a ____________ relationship. a. positive b. negative* c. non-linear d. multiple correlation 39. A recent study found that as people’s commitment to their job increased, their absences from work decreased. Which correlation coefficient best represents this finding? a. –1.02 b. 0.26 c. –0.56* d. –0.29 40. Which of the following statements is false? a. Correlations show the association between two variables. b. Correlation coefficients can range from –1.00 to +1.00. c. Scatterplots are a good way to see the relationship between two variables. d. Correlation implies causation.* 41. Which of the following is not included among the statistical artifacts that are corrected for in a meta-analysis? positive correlation* sample size reliability range restriction 42. Sarah is attempting to draw a general conclusion about the influence of worker satisfaction on productivity by quantitatively combining the results from a number of studies. What statistical method would she use? a. meta-analysis* b. unified analysis c. integration analysis d. correlation analysis 43. A statistical method for combining and analyzing the results from many different studies to draw a general conclusion about relationships between variables is known as factor analysis. meta-analysis.* statistical artifacts. analysis of variance. Module 2.4 44. If a researcher wants to examine whether a test is reliable over a reasonable time period, he or she might administer the test to the same people at two different points in time and calculate a correlation coefficient between the scores taken at time one and the scores taken at time two.* devise different forms of the test that measure the same general content and correlate the scores of each test with each other. allow the test to be judged by several different individuals who all agree on what the test is designed to measure. break the test into two sections and correlate the two sections with each other. 45. A corporation administers a personality survey to employees. The exact same survey is given to the same employees the following week to assess: inferential reliability. equivalent forms reliability. test-retest reliability.* inter-rater reliability. 46. A test that is chosen to assess the abilities necessary to carry out the demands of a specific job can be referred to as a: a. criterion. b. prognostic. c. diagnostic. d. predictor.* 47. Dr. Groeneveld and Dr. Duran are investigating whether drivers are wearing their seatbelts. They stand on opposite street corners and tally how many drivers passing by are wearing their seatbelts. Which type of reliability does this approach assess when comparing their final tallies across a large number of drivers? a. inter-rater reliability* b. internal consistency reliability c. equivalent forms reliability d. test-retest reliability 48. The reliability of a test relates to its _____________, whereas the validity of a test relates to its _____________. a. accuracy; consistency b. applicability; consistency c. accuracy; generalizability d. consistency; accuracy* 49. If a measure is ___________, we would get the same values each time we sampled the behavior. If a measure is ___________, we are gathering either incomplete or inaccurate information. a. not valid; reliable b. reliable; valid c. reliable; not valid* d. valid; unreliable 50. In order for a test to be ________________, it must also be _____________. valid; reliable* reliable; valid reliable; statistically significant statistically significant; valid 51. Professor Merenich hypothesizes that a person’s intelligence will determine how well the person will perform on the job. In this example, intelligence is the criterion. dependent variable. predictor.* validity coefficient. 52. Two types of criterion-related validity are a. predictive and concurrent.* b. content-related and construct-related. c. predictor and criterion. d. test-retest and inter-rater. 53. Which of the following characterizes a predictive validity design? a. There is a time lag between the collection of the test data and the criterion data.* b. There is no lag time between gathering the test scores and the performance data. c. The test is administered to current employees rather than applicants. d. The same test is administered to both current employees and applicants. 54. Examining the correlation between new employee test scores and their job performance six months after they are hired provides a way to assess: content validity. construct validity. predictive validity.* concurrent validity. 55. A concurrent design is a type of criterion-related validity.* content-related validity. predictive validity. construct validity. 56. An HR manager is developing a test for hiring new employees. She plans to give current employees the new test and then correlate their scores with the performance records that are currently in their personnel files. Her method for collecting data can be best characterized as a(n) predictive design. criterion design. concurrent design.* experimental design. 57. Which of the following is true of content-related validation? a. There is a tight focus on a test score and a performance score. b. There is a tight focus on a job analysis.* c. A broad net is cast in gathering evidence to support decisions or inferences. d. It yields a validity coefficient. 58. Which of the following is false? a. A construct is a characteristic or concept that a predictor is intended to measure. b. Intelligence and personality are examples of constructs. c. Construct validity mainly involves examining the consistency of scores over time.* d. A construct is a broad representation of a human characteristic. 59. A psychological concept or characteristic (e.g., intelligence, personality, leadership) that a predictor is intended to measure is a construct.* criterion. validity coefficient. correlation coefficient. CHAPTER 3: INDIVIDUAL DIFFERENCES AND ASSESSMENT Module 3.1 1. Early individual differences tests focused on measuring a. interests. b. opinions. c. beliefs. d. intelligence.* 2. “g” is an abbreviation for a. goal setting. b. general mental ability.* c. growth capacity. d. giftedness. 3. Dr. Hendry was asked to develop a selection system for hiring firefighters. She will most likely use a cognitive ability test to assess to what extent each applicant can learn new procedures.* to what extent each applicant possesses any given personality trait. applicants’ ability to maintain a particular level of physical activity. the overall character of the applicant. 4. I-O psychologists assume that a person’s intelligence and personality can increase given the proper training. remain relatively stable over time.* can decrease without proper training. remain stable in work settings but decrease in settings outside of the work environment. 5. All of the following are assumptions of the individual differences model except a. all jobs require the same abilities.* b. adults have a variety of attributes and the levels of these attributes are relatively stable over time. c. people differ in their attributes, and these differences are associated with job success. d. individual differences can be measured reliably and validly. 6. Mental ability refers to a person’s ability to control one’s emotions. capacity to reason, plan, and solve problems.* ability to notice changes in his/her body position. ability to be motivated by a supervisor. 7. Understanding and predicting worker behavior by simply measuring “g” describes the g-ocentric model.* intelligence quotient. triarchic approach to intelligence. general mechanical ability. 8. According to the text, the ___________ is person-centered and looks for qualities or characteristics within a person that will help us understand that persons’ behavior. The __________ sets about measuring such characteristics. psychometrician; human factors psychometrician; differential psychologist differential psychologist; psychometrician * differential psychologist; human factors Module 3.2 9. Perceptual-motor abilities are a. mental abilities that combine memory and recall. b. physical abilities that combine strength and stamina. c. physical attributes that combine the senses and motion.* d. mental abilities that combine a persons IQ and “g.” 10. _______________ often refers to specific abilities such as memory and reasoning, whereas _______________refers to a more general ability to adapt to an environment. Cognitive ability; intelligence* Intelligence; cognitive ability Cognitive ability; determination Intelligence; personality 11. I-O psychologists have recently defined intelligence as a. the ability to recall important dates and events. b. the ability to learn and adapt to an environment.* c. the speed and accuracy of memory. d. the ability to store large amounts of information in working memory. 12. Defining intelligence can be problematic because personality characteristics account for more variance in job outcomes. intelligence is very unstable over time. different cultures have different views about who an “intelligent person” is.* the formula for calculating intelligence is complex. 13. Measures of general mental ability do not always guarantee success on the job because some jobs also require physical strength and interpersonal skills.* many general mental ability tests are not reliable. some general mental ability tests are biased against certain protected groups. some jobs may ask people to take on too much work, resulting in burnout. 14. Which one of the following statements is false? a. General mental ability affects performance on a variety of different jobs. b. The greater the amount of information to be processed, the more important general mental ability becomes. c. As the complexity of the job increases, the predictive value of general mental ability tests increases. d. High general mental ability guarantees success on any job.* 15. The phenomenon in which new generations seem to be smarter than their parents is referred to as: the Intelligence Quotient. the Flynn effect.* “g.” the taxonomic approach. 16. All of the following are indicators of the Flynn Effect except a. intelligence continues to rise over time. b. individuals appear to get smarter over their life span. c. new generations appear to be smarter than their parents. d. older generations learn faster than new generations.* 17. An I-O psychologist is screening firefighter recruits to examine strength, flexibility, and stamina. These traits would best be tested by physical ability tests.* IQ tests. differential psychology. general mental ability tests. 18. Another term that describes aerobic endurance is a. strength. b. flexibility. c. stamina.* d. agility. 19. Vision, hearing, touch, and smell are types of a. sensory abilities.* b. sensorimotor abilities. c. motor abilities. d. psychomotor abilities. 20. A test is designed to measure coordination, dexterity, and reaction time. These are classified as psychosocial abilities. perceptual-motor abilities. sensory abilities. psychomotor abilities.* 21. Psychomotor abilities include all of the following except a. reaction time. b. kinesthetic feedback.* c. dexterity. d. coordination. 22. To qualify for a job, an applicant is asked to lift a 100-pound sack over his head once; this requirement is most likely used to assess the applicant’s psychomotor abilities. stamina. muscular power.* reaction time. 23. The physical functions of movement, associated with coordination, dexterity, and reaction time, are referred to as psychomotor abilities.* cognitive abilities. mental abilities. muscular endurance. 24. The Five Factor Model of personality includes the following personality dimensions: conscientiousness, agreeableness, emotional stability, extraversion, openness to experience.* conscientiousness, agreeableness, emotional stability, extraversion, introversion. conscientiousness, integrity, emotional stability, extraversion, openness to experience. conscientiousness, agreeableness, emotional stability, extraversion, intelligence. 25. Which one of the following statements is true? a. The Five Factor Model is a taxonomy for work-related physical attributes. b. Personality tests can predict behavior with 100% accuracy. c. Personality is often defined as the typical way that an individual has of responding.* d. Agreeableness is positively related to success in all aspects of work for all occupations. 26. Joe has recently taken a personality test. The test reveals that Joe is high in conscientiousness, agreeableness, and emotional stability. Based on the notion of a functional personality at work, Joe is also likely to have high integrity.* extraversion. introversion. intelligence. 27. Achievement and dependability are facets of which Big Five personality dimension? conscientiousness* openness to experience agreeableness extraversion 28. Personality factors are most predictive when the employee has a. a great amount of control on the job.* b. a moderate amount of control on the job. c. a little amount of control on the job. d. no control on the job. 29. Which one of the following statements is false? a. Research indicates that personality differences play a role in work behavior that is independent of the role played by cognitive ability. b. The more relevant and specific the work behavior we are trying to predict, the stronger the association between personality and behavior. c. Conscientiousness is the only personality factor that can be linked to performance at work.* d. Conscientiousness has widespread applicability in work settings. 30. The Big 5 personality dimension that best predicts the success of expatriates is conscientiousness. extraversion. openness.* agreeableness. 31. The acronym for Holland’s model that proposes that there are six interest types of people is a. RAZOR. b. RESAT. c. RICAT. d. RIASEC.* 32. In the RIASEC model, the enterprising interest type is considered the opposite of ___________. realistic investigative* artistic social 33. The six interests types in Holland’s model of vocational interests are realistic, introverted, apathetic, social, enterprising, conventional. realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, conventional.* achievement, dependable, conscientiousness, agreeableness, extraversion, emotional stability. avoidance, desire, contempt, apathy, sedentary, conservative. 34. Which of the following statements is false? a. Skills are practiced acts. b. Skills depend on ability, personality, and knowledge. c. Using a computer keyboard is an example of a skill. d. Many individuals are born with certain skills, so they don’t need to practice.* 35. Tacit knowledge is formally called academic knowledge. procedural knowledge.* declarative knowledge. material knowledge. 36. John has read several books about how to repair a car engine, even though he has never seen one up close. Joy, on the other hand, grew up in her parents’ auto shop and repairs car engines on a daily basis. When it comes to car repair, it is appropriate to say that John has _____________ knowledge, whereas Joy has _____________ knowledge. a. procedural; tacit b. tacit; procedural c. declarative; procedural* d. procedural; declarative 37. Melanie takes a test in his Industrial-Organizational Psychology class. Her score will most reflect her: a. emotional knowledge. b. declarative knowledge.* c. procedural knowledge. d. life knowledge. 38. “Street smarts” is a non-scientific term for academic knowledge. procedural knowledge.* declarative knowledge. material knowledge. 39. A major problem with the idea of emotional intelligence (EI) is a person’s emotional intelligence is often a reflection of his/her socio-economic status. studies have failed to show that EI predicts job performance above and beyond “g” and the Big 5 personality dimensions.* just as a person’s intelligence changes over time, so does a person’s emotional intelligence. emotional intelligence has high construct validity but low face validity. Module 3.3 40. The term ___________ was given to psychological tests by Cattell in 1890. a. general test b. mental test* c. quotient test d. intelligence test 41. The use of personality tests in organizations decreased in the late 1960’s and early 1970’s because a. there was no need for selection because there were more jobs than people. b. personality tests were used only for training purposes. c. of questions about invasion of privacy and the possible discriminatory effects of tests.* d. employers were skeptical of the value of testing their potential employees. 42. The term used to describe an objective and standardized procedure for measuring a psychological construct using a sample of behavior is a. task. b. criterion. c. norm. d. test.* 43. Jill received a 77% on a test, and her professor decides to curve the test. The professor compares Jill’s score to other students’ scores in her class. The professor decides to assign Jill a B+ because her score was high relative to everyone else’s. When assigning the B+, the professor used a process called a. storming. b. grouping. c. norming.* d. performing. 44. The acronym “KSAO” stands for knowledge, skills, agreeableness, and organization. knowledge, skills, abilities, and organization. knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics.* knowledge, skills, agreeableness, and openness. 45. Jack received a 75% on his statistics quiz. Jack’s score reflects that he is an average test taker. he is a C student in statistics. he is intelligent but lacks motivation to work hard in this class. without reference to a norm group, little is known about what the score means.* 46. Norming refers to the practice of comparing given scores to other relevant scores.* transforming scores from many different tests into standard scores. selecting people who fall within a normal range. collecting data in a valid and reliable manner. 47. Pauline is in the process of completing a management training program for her job. During her training program, she completed intelligence tests, personality tests, and a physical abilities test. Which term best describes these assessments? a. mental tests b. test battery* c. speed tests d. group tests 48. When many ability and personality attributes are assessed with a collection of tests, this is known as a test battery.* speed test. group test. performance test. 49. A notable difference between speed tests and power tests is that speed tests measure reaction time, whereas power tests measure muscular strength. speed tests are quantifiable, whereas power tests are not quantifiable. speed tests often provide greater variability between candidates than do power tests.* speed tests require logical thinking, whereas power tests rely upon instinct. 50. Tests that have no rigid time limit are a. speed tests. b. power tests.* c. group tests. d. individual tests. 51. Which of the following tests would most likely be of concern to advocates of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)? speed test* power test group test performance test 52. A timed (15 minutes) intelligence test is created. There are 50 questions, and most test takers do not finish answering all of the questions. The test score is calculated by how many items each test taker is able to complete correctly in the time allowed. This test is an example of a a. speed test.* b. power test. c. test battery. d. performance test. 53. An intelligence test consisting of 20 difficult questions is created. There is enough time given so that most of test takers have enough time to finish answering all of the questions. This test is an example of a a. speed test. b. power test.* c. test battery. d. performance test. 54. The well-known Rorschach Inkblot Test is an example of a(n) speed test. power test. group test. individual test.* 55. A veterinary technician is taking a test in which she must conduct x-rays and vaccination administrations. This test would be an example of a(n) speed test. power test. individual test. performance test.* 56. Tests that have the advantage of saving time and money are called speed tests. power tests. group tests.* performance tests. 57. If a test underpredicts criterion scores for one group as compared to another, then the test is likely a. biased.* b. unbiased. c. incorrectly developed. d. fair. 58. ____________ is a value judgment about actions or decisions based on test scores. a. Graphology b. Bias c. Culture d. Fairness* Module 3.4 59. A cognitive ability test that uses 50 items to assess verbal, numerical, and spatial abilities is known as the Wonderlic Personnel Test.* Bennett Test of Mechanical Comprehension. Primary Mental Abilities Test. Differential Aptitude Test. 60. Tests that are tailored to course or training material are a. knowledge tests.* b. cognitive ability tests. c. agility tests. d. personality tests. 61. The exams in this course are examples of a. individual tests. b. knowledge tests.* c. a cognitive test battery. d. psychomotor tests. 62. In a police hiring test, candidates must fire a weapon at a target. This is a test of a. psychomotor ability.* b. knowledge. c. personality. d. mental ability. 63. As part of their military training, soldiers are required to practice until they can hit a target 75% of the time using an AK47 attack rifle. In this example, the test would be best characterized as a(n) cognitive test battery. knowledge test. psychomotor abilities test.* temporal-spatial test. 64. Which of the following tests cannot be administered before a hiring decision is made? a. psychomotor test b. general mental ability test c. screen in personality test d. screen out personality test* 65. Norm groups are used in vocational interests tests to compare a candidate’s score with a group that closely resembles the candidate’s expressed interests in order to determine which jobs the candidate is best suited for.* find applicants who would work well together. make value judgments about an applicant’s personality. assess to what extent an applicant can answer question correctly. 66. Joshua just graduated from college and is interested in finding out what type of occupation he is best suited for. Joshua would most likely take which type of test? a. intelligence test b. vocational interest test* c. SAT or GRE d. Wonderlic test 67. Tests used to eliminate candidates who are clearly unsuitable for employment are referred to as screen out tests.* screen in tests. differential diagnosis tests. conventional practice tests. 68. Tests that can predict outstanding performance by discovering positive attributes a candidate may possess are referred to as: screen out tests. screen in tests.* differential diagnosis tests. conventional practice tests. 69. The textbook offers all the of following criticisms of individual assessments except they are often unreliable across assessors. they often invade the privacy of the candidate by asking information that is unrelated to the work associated with the job. individual assessment is not validated as rigorously as other forms of assessment. individual assessment consistently leads to discrimination against protected groups.* 70. Cameron is asked during an interview to explain how she would handle a particular situation while on the job. Cameron is most likely taking part in a(n) unstructured interview. situational interview.* categorical interview. situational judgment test. 71. During an interview, an applicant for a customer service representative position is asked how she would deal with an upset customer over the phone. This is called a(n) _____ interview question. cognitive situational* structured independent 72. In seeking to hire several new employees, an interviewer asks the same questions to each applicant, and each applicant is assigned a score based on his or her answers. This is an example of a(n) __________ interview. a. group b. unstructured c. situational d. structured* 73. When interviewees are asked specific questions about how they would respond to hypothetical scenarios, a(n) __________ interview is being conducted. a. group b. unstructured c. situational* d. structured 74. In a job interview, the interviewer asks different questions of each candidate and there is no formal scoring method. This is an example of a(n) ____________. a. group interview b. unstructured interview* c. situational interview d. structural interview 75. An interview consisting of specific questions and detailed outlines is called a(n) _____ interview. structured* unstructured situational cognitive 76. Which of the following best describes the existing data on interviews? Structured interviews and unstructured interviews are equally reliable. Structured interviews are less reliable than unstructured. Structured and unstructured interviews are both less valid than personality tests. Structured interviews are more reliable and valid than unstructured interviews.* 77. A collection of procedures that is used for evaluation and that is administered to groups of individuals is called a(n) group test. assessment center.* cluster test. en masse center. 78. The “in-basket” technique is a type of a. assessment center method.* b. intelligence assessment. c. group test. d. projective test. 79. Edna is applying for a job as an airline pilot. As one of her requirements, she is asked to complete several maneuvers in a flight simulator. This type of test can be best characterized as a(n) a. work sample test.* b. achievement test. c. cluster test. d. situational judgment test. 80. All of the following are true of a situational judgment test except a. it is not well accepted by test takers.* b. it is commonly a paper and pencil test. c. it is best used to measure procedural knowledge. d. it reduces adverse impact compared to other devices. 81. The ___________ model proposes that the events that make up a person’s history are not accidental or random but instead represent choices made by the individual. a. Predisposition b. History c. Life choices d. Ecology* 82. A paper and pencil test that presents the candidate with a written scenario and then asks the candidate to choose a response from a series of alternatives is a(n) work sample test. situational judgment test.* situational interview. contingencies test. 83. Biodata refers to a selection technique that collects information about applicants’ previous jobs, education, training, and personal history.* obtained by measuring the applicant’s physiological responses to particular questions. about applicants’ medical ailments. about a candidate’s emotional intelligence. 84. When Dr. Duran uses information about an applicant’s background and experiences to make inferences about their abilities, interests, and personality characteristics, she is using a test battery. a work sample test. the ecology model.* the developmental model. 85. Personality based integrity tests ask direct questions about a person’s past honesty behavior. infer integrity from broad constructs.* examine a person’s actual behavior in situations in which they are tempted to be dishonest. contact references that a candidate provides on the job application, specifically looking for discrepancies. 86. Tests that ask questions directly about the candidate’s past honesty behavior as well as attitudes toward various behaviors, such as employee theft, can be best described as personality based integrity tests. overt integrity tests.* polygraph tests. situational judgment tests. 87. When a test asks direct questions about past honesty behavior, such as stealing, it is called a(n) __________ test. overt integrity* personality based integrity biodata graphology 88. When a test asks indirect questions about honesty and social responsibility, it is called a(n) __________ test. overt integrity personality based integrity* biodata graphology Module 3.5 89. When two methods of assessment show little relationship to each other, but when taken together increase a test’s relationship with job performance, it can be said that together they have incremental validity.* content validity. construct validity. face validity. 90. Handwriting analysis is also called a. polygraph. b. graphology.* c. lithograph. d. lie detection. 91. In examining the psychometric characteristics of graphology, researchers have found that this technique is ________________ in predicting job performance. valid, but not reliable reliable, but not valid* neither reliable or valid reliable and valid 92. Which of the following industries/organizations cannot use a “lie detector” test as part of the employment screening process? a. nuclear weapons labs b. FBI c. CIA d. computer assembly plants* 93. Assessment practices that are poor predictors of future job performance are a. biodata and personality. b. graphology and polygraph* c. assessment centers and performance appraisals d. cognitive ability and situational judgment tests 94. Routing tests are used at the _____ of computer adaptive tests (CATs). beginning* middle end beginning and end 95. A major benefit of computer adaptive testing (CAT) is the ability to identify a test taker’s level of ability and refine the test taker’s position within that ability level.* the test offers a comprehensive assessment of the test takers ability to use complicated technology. the test provides candidates with immediate results. the ability for the test to adapt to different people to limit any biased results. 96. Computer Adaptive Testing (CAT) presents the candidate with _____ questions than a paper-pencil test, so the test takes _____ time to complete. a. more; less b. more; more c. fewer; less* d. fewer; more 97. All of the following are advantages of Computer Adaptive Testing except a. every candidate doesn’t need to answer every item. b. it provides for finer discrimination at the extreme ends of the ability scale. c. testing can be completed more quickly since fewer items are used. d. it is an affordable assessment tool for any organization.* CHAPTER 4: UNDERSTANDING PERFORMANCE Module 4.1 1. An employee’s behavior in a work setting, which can be measured in terms of individual proficiency, is best characterized as productivity. effectiveness. knowledge. performance.* 2. Productivity can be best explained as any behavior that is work related. a ratio between employee inputs and outputs.* an evaluation of performance. the number of promotions given within a designated amount of time. 3. A manager evaluating an employee’s “total value of sales” would be interested in performance. effectiveness.* productivity. motivation. 4. The ratio of effectiveness (output) to the cost of achieving that level of effectiveness (input) is defined as performance. effectiveness. productivity.* motivation. 5. Campbell’s hierarchical model of job performance includes all of the following as determinants of job performance except declarative knowledge. procedural knowledge. productivity.* motivation. 6. An I-O psychologist is attempting to measure job performance, but has found that many measures include information that is unrelated to what is being measured. This problem can be best explained as a(n) criterion deficiency. criterion contamination.* ultimate criterion. categorical criterion. 7. An important difference between an ultimate criterion and an actual criterion is that an ultimate criterion is free from imperfection of measurements, whereas an actual criterion is not.* an ultimate criterion suffers from imperfections in measurement, whereas an actual criterion does not. an ultimate criterion can be applied, whereas an actual criterion is purely hypothetical. an ultimate criterion refers to cognitive processes, whereas an actual criterion refers to behavior. 8. When an I-O psychologist thoroughly considers and tries to capture all aspects of the ultimate criterion in the actual criterion, he/she is attempting to avoid criterion deficiency.* criterion contamination. ultimate criterion. categorical criterion. 9. In a thorough job analysis of the position of a paramedic, eight unique aspects of the job are identified. Using this job analysis information to develop criterion measures would help to prevent a. criterion contamination. b. ultimate criterion. c. actual criterion. d. criterion deficiency.* 10. Understanding what is required to complete a task is called: a. declarative knowledge* b. procedural knowledge c. operational knowledge d. administrative knowledge 11. Understanding how to perform a task is called: a. declarative knowledge b. procedural knowledge* c. operational knowledge d. administrative knowledge 12. According the Campbell, there are _____ distinct performance components that may or may not appear in a job. a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 8* 13. When a criterion is missing information that is part of the behavior being measured, _____ occurs. a. criterion deficiency* b. criterion contamination c. ultimate criterion d. actual criterion 14. When a criterion includes information unrelated to the behavior being measured, _____ occurs. a. criterion deficiency b. criterion contamination* c. ultimate criterion d. actual criterion 15. The ideal measure of all of the relevant aspects of job performance is called: a. criterion deficiency b. criterion contamination c. ultimate criterion* d. actual criterion Module 4.2 16. Questionnaires that assess an individual’s Organizational Citizenship Behavior (OCB) assess altruism and generalized compliance.* productivity and effectiveness. performance and effectiveness. commitment and motivation. 17. Alex has been an employee at Company Y for several years. He is extremely punctual and follows the company’s rules without question. Alex’s behavior can be best described as altruistic. task performance. generalized compliance.* obsessive. 18. Susan works for a major manufacturer of computer processors. As a part of Susan’s job, she is expected to run a series of diagnostic tests 12 times per day to ensure the processors being sold are adequate. Susan’s ability to perform the diagnostic tests would be best characterized as contextual performance. task performance.* functional behavior. adaptive behavior. 19. Robert had to stay late on a Friday in order to finish some reports. John saw the stack of reports and offered to stay late and help Robert finish them. This is an example of altruism.* generalized compliance. job-specific task proficiency. task performance. 20. Many of the employees from the marketing department know the manager would not be able to attend this week’s meeting and decided not to go. Mary reminded everyone how they would have twice as much work the following week of they didn’t go. This is an example of altruism. generalized compliance.* job-specific task proficiency. task performance. 21. All of the following can be characterized as general compliance except endorsing, supporting, and defining organizational objectives. following organizational rules and behaviors. volunteering to take on extra projects at work that are not normally part of your job.* following company polices regarding days off and vacation time. 22. Henry is a team player at his place of employment; he consistently helps his coworkers and volunteers to take on several tasks that are outside of his formal job description. However, Henry is always late, and he does things in his own way. Henry demonstrates altruism but not general compliance.* demonstrates general compliance but not altruism. demonstrates dishonesty but not altruism. demonstrates general compliance but not organizational citizenship behavior. 23. Measures of ___________ are most closely associated with task performance, whereas _________________ does a better job of predicting contextual performance altruism; empathy. cognitive ability; personality.* personality; cognitive ability. empathy; altruism. 24. When an evaluation is made about the effectiveness of a worker’s behavior, the measure is most likely a(n) judgmental measure.* personnel measure. concurrent measure. objective measure. 25. Data collected about an employee’s absences, accidents, and promotion rates are judgmental measures. personnel measures.* concurrent measures. objective measures. 26. The number of patients a medical intern treated in one day would be measured by _____ measures. objective.* judgmental. personnel. organizational. 27. A performance indicator that is an evaluation of the effectiveness of an individual’s work behavior is a(n) a. adaptive measure. b. personnel measure. c. objective measure. d. judgmental measure.* 28. A problem often associated with personnel measures and objective measures is that a worker’s behavior may be influenced by factors outside the worker’s control.* both types of measurement rely too much on qualitative data. too much emphasis is placed upon the judgment of the evaluator. a worker may not be aware he/she is being evaluated, and may continue to perform the job as he/she normally would. 29. As a result of globalization, employees often work in different countries and are exposed to different cultures. One way to assess an individual’s ability to perform well under these changing circumstances would be to assess task performance. altruism. general compliance. adaptive performance.* 30. An employee who has the ability to make quick responses and decisions in an emergency demonstrates adaptive performance.* altruism. deliberate practice. generalized compliance. 31. According to the textbook, the main difference between an expert and a novice is practice.* intelligence. motivation. conscientiousness. 32. According to the textbook, counterproductive behavior refers to a. voluntary behavior that violates significant organizational norms and threatens the well-being of the company.* b. involuntary behavior that results from ineffective company polices and an inability of the company to adapt to the changing market. c. unexpected behaviors. d. staying late without letting the boss know. 33. Lordstown Syndrome refers to a type of contextual performance. sabotage.* absenteeism. deliberate practice. 34. Altruism and generalized compliance are examples of: a. adaptive performance b. personnel performance c. organizational citizenship behavior* d. objective citizenship behavior 35. Absenteeism and tardiness are examples of _____ measures. a. judgmental b. personnel* c. adaptive d. objective 36. An annual performance evaluation is an example of a (an) _____ measure. a. judgmental* b. personnel c. adaptive d. objective 37. The way in which an employee deals with a corporate merger would be observed by a (an) _____ measure. a. judgmental b. personnel c. adaptive* d. objective 38. Individualized training on tasks selected by a qualified teacher is called: a. expert performance b. deliberate practice* c. adaptive performance d. personnel practice 39. Dishonesty, absenteeism, and sabotage are all examples of: a. organizational citizenship behavior b. deliberate practice c. counterproductive work behavior* d. contextual performance 40. In which of the following companies did Lordstown Syndrome originate? a. Sony b. McDonalds c. General Motors* d. Coca-Cola Module 4.3 41. “Job ladder” and “job families” are concepts most helpful for developing _________ systems. recruiting training compensation promotion* 42. Dr. Hammond, an I-O psychologist, uses information gathered from a job analysis to develop a system for assessing the extent to which an individual worker performs his or her job well. Dr. Hammond is most likely developing a performance assessment system.* workforce reduction system. job description. compensation package. 43. A primary aim of a job analysis is to a. evaluate the performance of incumbents in a particular family of jobs. b. combine the task demands of a job with the job’s required human attributes to produce a theory of behavior for the job.* c. provide a comprehensive evaluation of an individual to find the best fit between his/her personality and a particular job. d. interpret the results from many different studies that involve human behavior and develop a general theory of application. 44. A _____________ approach begins with a statement of the actual tasks as well as what is accomplished by those tasks, whereas a _____________ approach focuses on the attributes of the worker necessary to accomplish the tasks. a. task-oriented; worker-oriented* b. worker-oriented; task-oriented c. task-oriented; personality-oriented d. personality-oriented; task-oriented 45. Critical Incidents are behaviors that result in accidents in the work place. behaviors in a particular job that result in either success or failure.* events within a company that result in widespread layoffs. events within a company that result in increased profits. 46. Job psychographs used to be utilized to measure the _____ requirements of a job. a. physical b. mental* c. emotional d. psychomotor 47. Which of the following is not one of the ways in which job analysis is conducted? a. observation b. interview c. graphology* d. work diaries Module 4.4 48. All of the following are negative aspects of electronic performance monitoring except a. it provides raw material for job analysis.* b. it may violate privacy rights. c. employers may use punitive actions based on this approach. d. it may foster negative perceptions of fairness. 49. One of the main reasons cogniti