general chem 104

Solution chemistry ch 8 1) A saturated solution: A) contains as much solvent as it can hold B) contains no double bonds C) contains dissolved solute in equilibrium with undissolved solid D) will rapidly precipitate if a seed crystal is added. 2) Of the following, which can serve as the solvent in a solution? A) A liquid B) A solid C) A gas D) All of the above 3) A homogenous mixture consists of 12% ethanol, 28% methanol and 60% water. Which of these is the solvent for the mixture? A) Water B) Methanol C) Ethanol D) Ethanol and methanol 4) A homogenous mixture consists of 34% ethanol and 66% isopropanol. Which of these is the solute of the mixture? A) Isopropanol B) Ethanol C) Both ethanol and isopropanol D) Neither ethanol nor isopropanol 5) In a solution, the solute is: A) the substance in the greatest amount B) the substance that is dissolved C) always water D) always a gas 6) Which of the following statements best describes the phrase "like dissolves like"? A) The only true solutions are formed when water dissolves a polar solute. B) A solvent and a solute with similar intermolecular forces will easily make a solution. C) The only true solutions are formed when water dissolves a nonpolar solute. D) A solvent will dissolve a solute that has a similar mass. 7) Which of the following can be classified as a colloid? A) Grape juice B) Homogenized milk C) Blood D) Kool-Aid 8) Which of the following is an example of a true solution? A) Blood B) Homogenized milk C) Apple juice D) Mayonnaise 9) You have been given an unknown liquid that is insoluble in water but not in benzene (an aromatic hydrocarbon solvent). Which type of molecule is the unknown? A) Polar B) Nonpolar C) Neither polar nor nonpolar D) Both polar and nonpolar 10) Which of the following has the least effect on the solubility of a solid in a liquid solvent? A) Temperature B) Pressure C) Nature of the solvent D) Nature of the solute 11) Which one of the following compounds will be most soluble in water? A) CH3OH B) CH3CH2OH C) CH3CH2CH2OH D) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH 12) In general, the solubility of ________ in water decreases as temperature increases. A) liquids B) solids C) gases D) none of these 13) Which one of the following compounds will be most soluble in hexane? A) CH3CH2 OH B) CH3CH2CH2OH C) D) CH3OH 14) A water solution of sodium chloride is a good conductor of electricity. Due to this property, table salt is classified as a(n): A) weak electrolyte B) strong electrolyte C) non-electrolyte D) semi-electrolyte 15) A water solution of sucrose, table sugar, does not conduct electricity. Due to this property, sucrose is classified as a(n): A) weak electrolyte B) strong electrolyte C) non-electrolyte D) semi-electrolyte 16) A water solution of acetic acid, vinegar, barely lights a light bulb. This property means that vinegar is a(n): A) weak electrolyte B) strong electrolyte C) non-electrolyte D) semi-electrolyte 17) Which of the following can be an example of a weak electrolyte? A) MgCl2 B) HC2H3O2 C) HNO3 D) KOH 18) Which of the following is an example of a nonelectrolyte? A) MgCl2 B) HC2H3O2 C) sugar C12H22O11 D) NaOH 19) In order to prevent the process of either crenation or hemolysis with red blood cells an intravenous solution concentration should be ________ to the concentration of blood. A) hypotonic B) hypertonic C) isotonic D) all of these 20). The process of crenation occurs when the concentration outside a cell is ________ and is said to be ________. A) lower in concentration; hypotonic B) lower in concentration; hypertonic C) higher in concentration; hypotonic D) higher in concentration; hypertonic E) none of the above 21) Air can be classified to be a solution of several gases. Which gas is considered to be the solvent? A. O2 B. N2 C. CO2 D. H2O E. All of the above 22). Oxygen is dissolved into water to make a solution. If the temperature of the solution is increased, the solubility of the oxygen will _____. A. decrease B. increase C. be unchanged D. cannot predict 23). Normal saline solution is 0.90% (w/v) NaCl. A solution that is 0.10 % NaCl is _____. A. isotonic B. hypertonic C. hypotonic D. osmotic 24).Which of these contains the largest size particles? A. solution B. suspension C. colloid D. solvent 25). The solubility of carbon dioxide in carbonated beverages can be maximized during bottling by using: high pressures and high temperatures. low pressures and low temperatures. low pressures and high temperatures. D. high pressures and low temperatures. 26). Arrange the terms solution, suspension, and colloid in order of increasing size of the dispersed particles.(smallest to largest size) A. solution < suspension < colloid B. solution < colloid < suspension C. suspension < solution < colloid D. colloid < solution < suspension 27). Which of the following statement is incorrect? A. pure water is an electrolyte B. ionic compounds are electrolytes C. tap water may show electrical conductivity D. strong electrolytes split into ions almost instantly 28) Which of the following statement is not correct? A. osmosis involves movement of water through semipermeable membrane B. dialysis involves movement of only water through semipermeable membrane C. dialysis involves movement of water and smaller molecules through semipermeable membrane D. when concentrations outside and inside the cell are different, water will travel through semipermeable membrane. 29). Solutes when dissolved in water produce ions. These solutes are generally known as A. electrolytes B. non-electrolytes C. strong electrolytes D. weak electrolytes 30). In representing a chemical reaction which of the following is most correct statement? A. reactants are shown on the right hand side of arrow B. reactants are not shown at all C. products are shown on the left hand side of arrow D. we can show reactants either on the left side or right side. E. products are shown on the right side. 31). Osmosis is the diffusion of water through a cell wall or membrane or any partially-permeable barrier from a solution of low solute concentration (high water potential) to a solution with high solute concentration (low water potential), up a solute concentration gradient. It is a physical process in which a solvent moves, without input of energy, across a semi-permeable membrane (permeable to the solvent, but not the solute) separating two solutions of different concentrations. If a 1.0 M solution of protein(very large molecules) are separated by 8.0 M glucose soltion by semipermeable membrane. The flow of solvent will be from protein to glucose from glucose to protein there will be no flow of water flow will be in both directions. 32) Identify the type of transport that will occur for the sodium ions that requires energy for transport a. passive diffusion b. active transport c. facilitated diffusion d. all of the above e. none of the above 33) Identify the type of transport that will occur for the oxygen molecules that requires no energy for transport a. passive diffusion b. active transport c. facilitated diffusion d. all of the above e. none of the above 34) Will the red blood cell undergo crenation, lysis or no change in each of the following solutions? 10 % m/v NaCl, distilled water and 5 % m/v glucose solution(which is isotonic with blood glucose). A. crenate, lysis, no change B. lysis, no change, crenate C. no change, crenate, lysis D. crenate, crenate, crenate 35) Identify hand lotion as a. colloid b. solution c. suspension d none of the above 36) Predict which of the following will fully dissociate (strong electrolyte) in water? Sugar, KCl, organic acid pyruvic acid A sugar B organic acid pyruvic C KCl D all of them E none of them 37) Predict which of the following will not dissociate (nonelectrolyte) in water? CaCl2, KCl, organic acid pyruvic acid A glucose B organic acid pyruvic C KCl D all of them E none of them 38) In order to prevent the process of either crenation or hemolysis with red blood cells an intervenous solution concentration should be ________ to the concentration of blood. A, hypertonic B hypotonic c. isotonic d. none of the above 39) As the blood leaves the patient, its solute concentrations are ________ (hypertonic, hypotonic, isotonic) to the dialyzing solution and As the blood re-enters the patient, its solute concentrations are ________(hypertonic, hypotonic, isotonic) to the dialyzing solution. a.isotnoc, isotonic b. hypertonic,isotonic c. hypertonic,hypotonic d. hypotonic,hypertonic 40). Will a red blood cell undergo crenation, lysis, or no change in each of the following solutions? (a) 2 % (m/v) NaCl... (b) distilled water... (c) 5% (m/v) glucose... a. crenation,lysis,no change b. lysis,crenation,lysis c. shrink, shrink,shrink d. crenation,shrink,no change 41). The difference between normal and sickle cell hemoglobin is in which structure? A secondary B tertiary C quaternary D primary 42) The glucose transporter provides facilitated transport across the cell membrane. Do you think this transporter is active after you eat a meal and after you wake up in the morning? A active,active B inactive, inactive C active, inactive D inactive, active 43) .If "A" contains 2% NaCl and starch solutions and is separated by a dialysis membrane from "B"which contains 0.5 % NaCl, which event will occur? A) Na ions and Cl ions will flow from "A" to "B". B) Na ions and Cl ions will flow from "B" to "A". C) Water will flow from "A" to "B". D) Water will flow from "B" to "A". E) A and D 44) Which of the following cannot act as a Bronsted-Lowry acid? (CH 9) A) SO4-2 B) H2O C) CO3-2 D) HS- E) A and C 45) Which of the following is an example of a nonelectrolyte? A) MgCl2 B) CH3COOH that is HC2H3O2 C) sugar C12H22O11 D) NaOH 46) .If "A" contains 5 % NaCl and starch solutions and is separated by a osmotic membrane from "B"which contains 0.5 % NaCl, which event will occur? A) Na ions and Cl ions will flow from "A" to "B". B) Na ions and Cl ions will flow from "B" to "A". C) Water will flow from "A" to "B". D) Water will flow from "B" to "A". E) A and D 47). When a diabetic does not have enough glucose in their blood may develops a condition similar to condition in hypoventilation, called: A) respiratory acidosis B) respiratory alkalosis C) metabolic acidosis D) metabolic alkalosis 48) . Will a red blood cell undergo crenation, lysis, or no change in each of the following solutions? (a) 2 % (m/v) NaCl... (b) distilled water... (c) 5% (m/v) glucose... a. crenation,lysis,no change b. lysis,crenation,lysis c. shrink, shrink,shrink d. crenation,shrink,no change 49) . The glucose transporter provides facilitated transport across the cell membrane. Do you think this transporter is active after you eat a meal and after you wake up in the morning? A active, active B inactive, inactive C active, inactive D inactive, active Part B 1) Calculate the mass percent of a solution prepared by dissolving 17.2 g of NaCl in 149 g of water. A) 10.3 % B) 11.5 % C) 0.103 % D) 0.115 % E). none of the above 2) What is 75% of 375? A) 281.3 B) 28125 C) 2.81 D) 0.281 E). none of the above 3) 45 is what percent of 150? A) 0.30 B) 30 C) 0.0030 D) 3000 E). none of the above 4) What is the percent mass/volume (% m/v) of a solution that is made from putting 25.0 g of NaCl in 275 mL of water? A) 0.0909 %w/v B) 9.09 %w/v C) 8.33 %w/v D) 10.9 %w/v E). none of the above 5) What is the %v/v concentration of a sample of wine that contains 15 mL of ethyl alcohol in 200 mL of wine? A) 0.075 %v/v B) 6.9 %v/v C) 0.75 %v/v D) 0.069 %v/v E). 7.5 %v/v 6) What is the glucose concentration in ppm of a solution made by mixing 23.2 mg glucose with 2.000 L? A) 8.62 ppm B) 11.6 ppm C) 1.16 ppm D) 0.862 ppm E). none of the above 7) Calculate the volume (in L) of a solution that contains 3.12 moles of NaCl if the concentration of this solution is 6.67 M NaCl? A) 2.14 L B) 20.8 L C) 46.8 L D) 0.468 L E). none of the above 8) Calculate the volume (in mL) of a 2.75 M solution that must be used to make 1.25 L of a 0.150 M solution. A) 0.0682 mL B) 68.2 mL C) 0.0330 mL D) 33.0 mL E). none of the above 9) What volume of 8.25 M NaOH solution must be diluted to prepare 2.40 L of 0.500 M NaOH solution? A) 39.6 L B) 0.356 L C) 438 mL D) 14.5 mL E). 145 mL 10). 25.0 g of ethanol (CH3OH) is dissolved into 100.0 g of water. What is the concentration (w/w) % solution? A. 20.0% B. 25.0% C. 75.0% D. 80.0% E. none of the above 11). How many grams of AgNO3 are required to make 2000.0 mL of a 0.10 M solution? ( Ag =108. N=14, O =16) A. 8.50 g B. 17.0 g C. 34.0 g D. 0.100 g E. none of the above 12). 7.450 g of KCl is dissolved into a solution with a total volume of 250.0 mL. What is the molarity of the solution? ( K = 39, Cl = 35.5) A. 0.40 M B. 3.75 M C. 0.804 M D. 0.20 M E. none of the above 13). What volume of 2.00 % NaCl must be diluted to make 10.00 mL of 0.90% NaCl, also known as normal saline solution? A. 4.5 mL B. 0.18 mL C. 9.0 mL D. 22.2 mL E. none of the above 14). A water sample taken from the ocean is 0.0036 g salt is present in a liter of this ocean water. What is the concentration in ppm? A. 0.036 B. 0.36 C. 36 D. 360 E. 3.6 % 15). A patient has been trying to achieve total blood cholesterol of 175 mg or less per 100 mL. A recent test result of a 2.0 mL blood sample found that 4.00 mg cholesterol were present. Has the patient reached the goal? A. No he did not reach his goal. 4.00 mg/2 mL is more than his goal for choesterol B. Yes, he did reach his goal. 4.00 mg/2 mL is equivalent to 200 mg/100 mL. C. No, the result 4.0 x 100]/2.0 is much less than the goal. D. Undetermined; 100 mL blood would have to be drawn to do a valid 16). An egg yolk with the volume of 4.00 mL contains 5 µg vitamin D (cholecalcifoerol). What is the concentration of vitamin D in µg/100 mL? A. 12.5 µg/100 mL B. 125.0 µg/100mL C. 1.25 µg/100 mL D. 0.125 µg/100mL E. None of the above 17). The molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 0.25 moles of KCl in water yo make the final volume of 250 mL. The molarity of this solution will be A. 2.0 M B. 0.25 M C. 1.0 M D. none of the above 18). 4.0 grams of sugar is dissolved in 46 grams of water. The percent concentration of sugar is A. 4.0% B. 8.0 % C. 12.0 % D. none of the above 19). How many grams of a compound is present in 500 mL of a 5.0 % mass /volume solution. A. 5.0 g B. 10 g C. 15 g. D. 25 g. E. none of the above 20). What is the concentration in ppm of a solution that contains 15 mg of a toxic metal in 1250 mL of a solution? A. 12 ppm B. 24 ppm. C. 6.0 ppm D. 18 ppm E. none of the above 21). What is the concentration in ppb of a solution that contains 15 mg of a toxic metal in 1250 mL of a solution? A. 12,000 ppb B. 6000 ppb C. 18000 ppb D. 24000 ppb E. 12.0 ppb. 23). What is the molarity of a NaOH solution if 4.0 g of NaOH is present in 200 mL of its solutionuse molecular weight of NaOH as 40.0 g/mol A. 0.25 M B. 1.0 M C. 0.50 M D. 1.5 M E. none of the above Chapter 9 Acids, Bases and Buffers in the Body 1) A Bronsted-Lowry acid is defined as a substance which: A) increases [H+] when placed in water B) decreases [H+] when placed in water C) acts as a proton acceptor in any system D) acts as a proton donor in any system 2) A Bronsted-Lowry base is defined as a substance which: A) acts as proton acceptor in any system B) acts as proton donor in any system C) decreases [H+] when placed in water D) increases [H+] when placed in water 3) In the following equation which is the proton donor and which is the proton acceptor(to the left side of equation? CO3-2 (aq) + H2O (l) ? HCO3- (aq) + OH- (aq) A) Donor: CO3-2; acceptor: H2O B) Donor: H2O; acceptor: CO3-2 C) Donor: HCO3-; acceptor: OH- D) Donor: OH-; acceptor: HCO3- 4) Which of the following cannot act as a Bronsted-Lowry acid? A) HSO4- B) H2O C) CO3-2 D) HS- 5) In the following equation identify the Bronsted-Lowry acid and base respectively: NH3 + HCN ? NH4+ + CN- A) NH3 and HCN B) HCN and NH3 C) NH4+ and CN- D) NH3 and NH4+ 6) Which of the following is not a strong acid? A) HCl (aq) B) HNO3 C) HC2H3O2 D) HClO4 7) Which of the following is not a strong base? A) NaOH B) NH4OH C) KOH D) Ca(OH)2 8) Given the following reaction, the equilibrium expression will be: 4 CuO (s) + CH4 (g) ? CO2 (g) + 4 Cu (s) + 2 H2O (g) A) [CuO]/[Cu] B) [CuO]4/[Cu]4 C) [Cu]4/[CuO]4 D) [CO2][H2O]2/[CH4] 9) The following reaction is exothermic. Which of the following will drive the reaction to the right (towards products)? CH4 (g) + 2 O2 (g) ? CO2 (g) + 2 H2O (g) A) A decrease in temperature B) An increase in temperature C) The removal of CH4 D) The addition of CO2 10) When a system is at equilibrium: A) the reaction rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse. B) the reaction rate of the reverse reaction is small compared to forward. C) the reaction rate of the forward reaction is small compared to the reverse. D) the amount of product and reactant is exactly equal. 11) Given the following reaction, write the equilibrium expression: C (s) + 2 H2 (g) ? CH4 (g) A) [CH4]/[C] [H2]2 B) [C][H2] C) [CH4]/[H2]2 D) [H2]2[C]/[CH4] 12) Which one of the following is the strongest weak acid? A) HCN (Ka = 4.9 × 10-10) B) HClO (Ka = 3.0 × 10-8) C) HNO2 (Ka = 4.5 × 10-4) D) HF (Ka = 6.8 × 10-4) 13) Which one of the following is the weakest acid? A) HCN (Ka = 4.9 × 10-10) B) HClO (Ka = 3.0 × 10-8) C) HNO2 (Ka = 4.5 × 10-4) D) HF (Ka = 6.8 × 10-4) 14) What is the conjugate base of OH-? A) H2O B) O- C) O2 D) O-2 15) What is the conjugate acid of HS-? A) S-2 B) H2S C) HS- D) S- 16) What is the conjugate acid of NH3? A) NH4+ B) NH2- C) NH2+ D) NH4 17) Which of the following does not represent a conjugate acid-base pair? A) HCO3-/CO3-2 B) H3PO4/HPO4-2 C) OH-/O-2 D) NH4+/NH3 18) Calculate the pH of 0.00756 M HNO3. A) 11.879 B) 7.091 C) 2.121 D) 12.947 19) In an acidic solution, pH is ________ and [H3O+] is ________. A) = 7, 1 x 10-7 M B) > 7, < 1 x 10-7 M C) < 7, > 1 x 10-7 M D) < 7, < 1 x 10-7 M 20) What is the pH of a solution that has a [H3O+] = 1.2 × 10-3? A) 1.20 B) 2.92 C) 11.08 D) 12.80 21) The [H3O+] and the pH of a 0.021 M HNO3 solution? A) 4.8 x 10-13 M and 12.32 B) 4.8 x 10-13 M and -12.32 C) 0.021 M and 1.68 D) 0.021 M and -1.68 22) What is the [H3O+] concentration of a solution that has a pH = 2.34? A) 2.3 × 10-3 M B) 4.6 × 10-3 M C) 2.2 × 10-12 M D) 1.2 × 101 M 23) What is the [H3O+] concentration of a solution that has a pH = 11.61? A) 1.2 × 101 M B) 1.0 × 10-14 M C) 2.5 × 10-12 M D) 4.1 × 1011 M 24) The isoelectric point of an amino acid is defined as: A) the pH at which the amino acid exits in the zwitterion form B) the pH at which it exists in the basic form C) the pH at which it exists in the acidic form D) the pH equals the pKa 25) Which of the following buffers is the one that is mainly contained in our blood? A) HC2H3O2/C2H3O2- B) NH4+/NH3 C) H2CO3/HCO3- D) HPO4-2/PO4-3 26) When a person hyperventilates the condition is known as: A) respiratory acidosis B) respiratory alkalosis C) metabolic acidosis D) metabolic alkalosis 27) When a diabetic does not have enough glucose in their blood it develops a condition called: A) respiratory acidosis B) respiratory alkalosis C) metabolic acidosis D) metabolic alkalosis 28). In the reaction: The conjugate acid of water is _____. A. HNO2 B. H2O C. H3O+ D. NO2- 29) Which of the following cannot act as a Bronsted-Lowry acid? A) SO4-2 B) H2O C)H CO3-1 D) HS- 30). In the reaction: NO2- is the _____. A. conjugate base of H2O B. conjugate base of HNO2 C. conjugate acid of HNO2 D. conjugate base of H3O+ 31). The equation: has the following equilibrium constant expression. A. C. B. D. 32). The equation: has the following equilibrium constant expression. A. C. B. D. 33). In the Haber process for the production of ammonia, Which will shift the equilibrium to right? A. increasing the concentration of N2 B. increasing the concentration of H2 C. increasing the concentration of NH3 D. both a and b 34). In the reaction below: Glycogen (aq) [stored glucose] + H2O > blood glucose(aq) + heat If the blood glucose is used up (removed) the equilibrium will A shift to left B shift to right C not shift anywhere D hard to predict 35). A solution in which the concentration of H+ is greater than the concentration of OH- will _____. A. have a pH greater than 7.0 and be basic B. have a pH less than 7.0 and be basic C. have a pH greater than 7.0 and be acidic D. have a pH less than 7.0 and be acidic 36). Basic solutions _____. A. have a H+ concentration greater than the OH- concentration and a pH greater than 7.0 B. have a H+ concentration greater than the OH- concentration and a pH less than 7.0 C. have a H+ concentration less than the OH- concentration and a pH greater than 7.0 D. have a H+ concentration less than the OH- concentration and a pH less than 7.0 37). Calculate the pH of solution produced by dissolving 0.001 moles of HNO3 in a liter of water. Assume complete dissociation. A. pH = 3.0 B. pH = 0.001 C. pH = 1 x 10–3 D. pH = 1 x 103 38) Calculate the pH of solution produced by dissolving 0.001 moles of NaOH in a liter of water. Assume complete dissociation. A. pH = 3.0 B. pH = 11.0 C. pH = 1 x 10–3 D. pH = 1 x 103 39). What is the molar concentration of hydronium ions in a sample of a soft drink that has a pH of 4? A. 1/4 M B. 4 M C. 1 x 104 M D. 1 x 10-4 M 40) What is the pH of a HClO4 solution that has a molarity 2.4 × 10-4? A) 1.20 B) 2.92 C) 11.08 D) 3.62 41). What is the [H3O+] concentration of a solution that has a pH = 3.34? A) 2.3 × 10-3 M B) 4.6 × 10-4 M C) 2.2 × 10-12 M D) 1.2 × 101 M E) none of the above 42) What is the [H3O+] concentration of a solution that has a pH = 10.61? A) 1.2 × 101M B) 1.0 × 10-12 M C) 2.45 × 10-11 M D) 4.1 × 1011 M 43). What is the pH of 0.021 M KOH solution? A. 12.32 B. 1.68 C. 2.1 D. 10.3 E. none of the above 44) What is the pH of 1x 10-5 M KOH solution? A 3 B 9 C 5.0 D 10 E 11 45) What is the conjugate base of HS-? A) S-2 B) H2S C) HS- D) S- Proteins and enzymes Chapter 10. 1. Which of the following is an ?-amino acid? A. C. B. D. 2. The side chain of the amino acid phenylalanine is shown here. The side chain is classified as _____. A. nonpolar B. polar-acidic C. polar-basic D. polar-neutral 3. The side chain of the amino acid tyrosine is shown here. The side chain is classified as _____. A. nonpolar B. polar-acidic C. polar-basic D. polar-neutral 4. The side chain of the amino acid histidine is shown here. The side chain is classified as _____. A. nonpolar B. polar-acidic C. polar-basic D. polar-neutral 5. At physiological pH, most amino acids carry both a 1+ and 1- charge. This form is known as a _____. A. zwitterion B. anion C. cation D. isoelectric ion 6. The sequence of the amino acids in a protein is known as the _____ structure. A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quaternary 7) What type of amino acid is glutamic? Structure is shown below. A) Polar neutral B) Nonpolar neutral ) Polar Acidic D) Basic E) none of the above 8) An essential amino acid is defined as one that: A) occurs in human protein B) occurs in all animal protein C) must be part of the proteins of the food supply of humans D) is capable of being synthesized within the human body 9) Which element is not a characteristic element of proteins? A) Cl B) C C) H D) N 10) Which element is not a characteristic element of carbohydrates? A) C B) O C) H D) N 11) Which element is not a characteristic element of proteins and carbohydrates both? A) O B) C C) H D) N E) P 12) Which amino acid is the N-terminal and C terminal respectively in the following peptide? Gly-Ala-Val-Phe-Phy-Trp-Tyr A) Gly-Ala B) Ala-Gly C) Val-Ala D) Gly-Tyr 13) The structure among the following that represents an amide/peptide (protein) bond is: A) B) C) D) 14) The pattern the backbone folds, for example alpha-helix or beta pleated sheet, is the ________ structure of a protein. A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary 15) Which type of forces stabilizes the primary structure of a protein? A) Peptide bonds B) Hydrogen bonding between the carbonyl group and amino group C) Salt bridges D) Dipole-dipole 16) Which type of forces stabilizes the secondary structure of a protein? A) Peptide bonds B) Hydrogen bonding between the carbonyl group and amino group C) Salt bridges D) Dipole-dipole 17) Which of the following is an example of a fibrous protein? A) Myoglobin B) Collagen C) Hemoglobin D) Albumin 18) A protein that is comprised of two or more protein chains that interact to make the overall structure is called the: A) primary structure B) secondary structure C) tertiary structure D) quaternary structure 19) Heavy metals such as Pb+2 or Hg+2 denature proteins by reacting with: A) the carboxylic acid group residues B) the OH group of tyrosine residues C) the SH group of cysteine residues D) the NH2 group of glutamine 20) Most acids and bases may denature protein by breaking A. hydrophobic interactions B. ionic interactions C. disulfide bonds D. London forces 21) The difference between normal and sickle cell hemoglobin is in which structure? A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary 22) The area on the enzyme that interacts with the substrate is called the: A) regulatory site B) modulator site C) active site D) allosteric site 23) Some enzyme requires a non-protein organic component(certain metal ions, such as Mg+2 or Zn+2 in order to have full activity. This non-protein component is called a: A) cofactor B) coenzyme C) regulator D) substrate 24) Enzymes function as a catalyst by: A) changing the products involved in a reaction B) changing the equilibrium constant C) increasing the time it takes for a reaction to take place D) lowering the activation energy of a reaction 25) An enzyme will increase the rate of certain reactions with certain specific substances9substrates). This characteristic is called: A) choosy B) specificity C) regulation D) inhibition 26) The model that explains that the substrate fits exactly into the active site of an enzyme is called: A) induced fit B) lock and key C) substrate selectivity D) coenzyme 27) The model that explains that the active site of an enzyme is flexible and will mold to the shape of the substrate is called: A) induced fit B) lock and key C) substrate selectivity D) coenzyme 28) A molecule that is similar in terms of the correct structure to the substrate molecule for an enzyme may act as a ---------- : A) cofactor B) regulator C) competitive inhibitor D) noncompetitive inhibitor 29) When a molecule binds to an enzyme at a site other than the active site and affects enzyme shape it is called a(n): A) noncompetitive inhibitor B) competitive inhibitor C) irreversible inhibitor D) covalent modification 30) Increasing the temperature beyond some range of an enzyme can _______: A) denature it B) make the reaction rate increase C) slow down the reaction D) have no effect on the enzyme's activity 31) Penicillin is an example of a: A) irreversible inhibitor B) reversible inhibitor C) activator D) noncompetitive inhibitor 32). The reactant molecules that are involved in enzyme catalyzed reactions are called the ____. A. substrates B. zymogens C. cofactor D. coenzymes 33). Small Organic compounds 9some vitamin B group that are not polypeptides but are necessary for enzymes to properly function are called a _____. A. substrate B. zymogen C. active site D. coenzyme 34). When a patient has accidentally ingested methanol, a physician can order the use of ethanol to overwhelm the alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme. This prevents the liver from producing deadly formaldehyde from the methanol. This is an example of _____. A. covalent modification B. feedback inhibition C. competitive inhibition D. protein denaturation 35). An enzyme is discovered that catalyzes the hydrolysis of only maltose but no other disaccharide. The enzyme displays _____. A. no specificity. B. relative specificity. C. absolute specificity. D. stereospecificity. 36) Catalysts, including enzymes, have the role of _____. A. changing a nonspontaneous chemical reaction to spontaneous B. lowering the activation energy of a reaction C. heating up the reactants to make the reaction progress faster D. changing the pH to a favorable pH for the reaction to progress 37). An inhibitor is a substance that affects an enzyme by _____. A. reducing the ability to act as a catalyst B. removing the prosthetic group from an enzyme C. reacting with the enzyme so there is less effect of the chemical reaction’s surroundings on the rate of reaction D. stopping the separation of the enzyme from the product keeping the reaction from going to completion 38). The ?-helix and ?-pleated sheet are both forms of the _____ structure of proteins. A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quaternary 39). Which is an ?-amino acid? A. B. C. D. 40). A zwitterion is an _____. A. ion that is polar acidic. B. ion that is polar basic. C. ion that has both positive and negative charge. D. ion that is polar neutral. 41). Where is the peptide bond located in this dipeptide? serine valine A. the CO—NH joining serine and the valine B. the doubly bonded oxygen just left of center between the amino acids C. the CH—CO on the top of the serine going to the right D. the NH—CH between the serine and valine 42). Which reaction is capable of breaking polypeptides into their component amino acids? A. hydrogenation (adding hydrogen) B. hydrolysis (adding water) C. dehydrogenation (removing hydrogen) D. dehydration (removing water) 43). The hydrophobic portions of a protein tend to _____. A. form chemical bonds between them so that the structure of the protein is rigid B. be attracted to each other by means of strong interatomic forces C. be strongly attracted to the water in the surroundings pulling portions of the molecule away its center D. fold into the interior of the three-dimensional shape away from water. 44). Which interactions are involved in establishing and holding the three-dimensional structure of a protein _____? A. salt bridge and disulfide bonds B. hydrogen bonds C. hydrophobic effects D. all of the above 45). The denaturing of a protein can be caused by _____. A. heating B. exposing to detergents C. changing the pH D. All of these can cause denaturation 46). Amino acids may exist as A. Neutral molecule B. exists as a positive ion C. As a zwitterion D. All of these are possible 47). Denaturation of proteins cannot result in: A. Loss of biological activity B. Disruption of tertiary structure C. Loss of primary structure D. Loss of quaternary structure 48). Thiamine or thiamin or vitamin B1 is a water-soluble small organic molecule. The deficiency of which (beriberi) do allow us to etabolize glucose well. Thiamine is not an enzyme but it must be a A cofactor B coenzyme C apoenzyme D none of the above 49) Match the term induced fit model with one of the following. A part of enzyme where catalytic activity occurs B the active site adopts the shape of substrate molecule C the active site has rigid shape D there is no match to term induced fit model 50) Pepsin, an enzyme that digest (breaking peptide bonds) protein at optimum pH 1.5 -2.0 in stomach. If the pH of stomach is changed to 5.0 (by taking lots of tums) the rate of pepsin catalyzed reaction would A increase B decrease C will not change D hard to predict 51) Many drugs designed by scientists are competitive inhibitors of enzyme because A it is easier to design a molecule that resembles substrate B it is difficult to design a molecule that can bind other than active site C both of the above are correct rationale D none of them are correct 52) Which reaction is capable of breaking polypeptides into their component amino acids? A. hydrogenation (adding hydrogen) B. hydrolysis (adding water) C. dehydrogenation (removing hydrogen) D. dehydration (removing water) 53) The structure of a amino acid is shown here. The side chain of the amino acid is classified as _____. A. nonpolar B. polar-acidic C. polar-basic D. polar-neutral 55). The model that explains that the active site of an enzyme is flexible and will mold to the shape of the substrate is called: A) induced fit B) lock and key C) substrate selectivity D) coenzyme 56) Amino acid can exist as positively charged ion in A. base B. acid C. pure water D. organic solvent E. cannot exist as positive ion 57) . An enzyme will increase the rate of certain reactions with certain specific substances, substrates. This characteristic is called: A) choosy B) specificity C) regulation D) inhibition Nucleic Acids Chapter 11 1.Shown at the right is a sugar found in nucleic acids: It is _____ and is found in the nucleic acid _____. A. ribose/DNA B. deoxyribose/DNA C. ribose/RNA D. deoxyribose/RNA 2. Shown at the right is a sugar found in nucleic acids: It is _____ and is found in the nucleic acid _____. A. ribose/DNA B. 2-deoxyribose/DNA C. ribose/RNA D. 2-deoxyribose/RNA 3. When a purine or pyrimidine base is combined with a sugar residue such as ribose or deoxyribose, the resulting compound is known as a _____. A. nucleoside B. nucleotide C. polynucleotide D. oligonucleotide 4. The structure shown at the right: Is known as a _____. A. nucleoside B. nucleotide C. polynucleotide D. oligonucleotide 5. Which of the following determines the primary structure of both DNA and RNA? A. the sequence of sugar molecules B. complimentary base pairing C. coiling of the helices into a tight, compact shape D. the sequence of nucleotide residues 6. Which of the following determines the secondary structure of DNA? A. the sequence of sugar molecules B. complimentary base pairing C. coiling of the helices into a tight, compact shape D. the sequence of nucleotide residues 7. The process by which DNA unwinds and synthesizes a copy of new DNA is known as _____. A. replication B. transcription C. translation D. reverse transcription 8. The process by which DNA makes RNA molecules is known as _____. A. replication B. reverse transcription C. translation D. transcription 9. The process by which the primary structure of RNA is used to generate the correct primary structure of a particular protein is known as _____. A. replication B. transcription C. translation D. reverse transcription 10. Replication is _____. A. the process by which DNA produces RNA prior to protein synthesis B. the process by which DNA produces a copy of itself prior to cell division C. the process by which RNA molecules generate the primary structure of proteins D. the process by which viral RNA is read to produce new DNA 11. Reverse transcription is _____. A. the process by which DNA produces RNA prior to protein synthesis B. the process by which DNA produces a copy of itself prior to cell division C. the process by which RNA molecules generate the primary structure of proteins D. the process by which viral RNA is read to produce new DNA 12. Translation is _____. A. the process by which DNA produces RNA prior to protein synthesis B. the process by which DNA produces a copy of itself prior to cell division C. the process by which RNA molecules generate the primary structure of proteins D. the process by which viral RNA is read to produce new DNA 13. The _____ has a "cloverleaf" shape and carries the amino acids to the site of protein synthesis. A. transfer RNA B. messenger RNA C. ribosomal RNA D. DNA 14. _____ is any permanent change in the primary structure of DNA. A. recombinant DNA B. gene expression C. operon D. mutation 15. RNA contains which bases? A. A, T, G, C B. T, G, C, U C. A, G, C, U D. a, G, C, T, U 16. In what process do tRNA molecule function? a. DNA replication b. fat metabolism c. respiration d. transcription e. protein synthesis 17. Combining DNA from two or more sources produces _____. A. recombinant DNA B. gene expression C. operon D. mutation 18. The purines and the pyrimidine are organic bases which _____. A. contain alcoholic groups B. have carbonyl carbons C. are amines D. include oxygen in the ring structure 19. What is present in a nucleotide that is not found in a nucleoside? A. a phosphate B. a monosaccharide C. an alcohol group D. a nitrogen base 20. DNA and RNA _____. A. differ in both their monosaccharide and nitrogen base components B. contain the same nitrogen bases, but different monosaccharides C. have the same composition, except for the monosaccharides D. are both produced by animals, but RNA is not produced by plants 21. Which is a base pairing that DOES NOT occur within the DNA molecule? A. G—C B. A—T . C—A D. all three pairings occur. 22. Two strands of DNA are held in position relative to each other by means of _____. A. covalent bonds. B. ionic bonds. C. disulfide bonds. D. hydrogen bonding. 23. DNA carries the information for life _____. A. in the super coiled portions of the molecule. B. by storing information in the patterns of the coils of the helices. C. by the way in which the deoxyribose is oriented within the helices. D. in a code which is a sequence of nitrogen bases. 24. A codon is_____. A. a code that is used to assemble long chains of amino acids. B. the coded information carried on the DNA molecule which starts a new protein. C. a set of 3 bases that call for a specific amino acid. D. the special code of bases that cannot have more than one meaning. 25) The backbone in a nucleic acids strand is called: A) glycosidic bond B) phosphate-sugar alternate backbone C) sugar backbone D) peptide backbone 26) A correct set of complimentary base pairs in DNA are: A) AU B) TC C) AT D) GA 27) What is the complimentary DNA sequence to the strand below" C-G-G-T-T-A-G A) G-C-C-A-A-T-C B) C-G-G-T-T-A-G C) A-T-T-G-G-C-T D) G-C-C-U-U-U-C 28) What is complimentary strand for a DNA sequence, TCGA? A) TGCA B) AGCT C) CTAC D) GATC 29) The type of RNA that brings the amino acid is called: A) tRNA B) rRNA C) mRNA D) vRNA 30) What is the complimentary DNA sequence to the strand below" G-A-C-T-T-A-G-G-C A) C-C-A-A-T-T-G-G B) C-T-G-A-A-T-C-C-G C) T-T-G-G-C-T-C-G-G D) C-C-U-U-U-C-C-C-G 31). The structure shown above Is known as a _____. A. nucleoside B. nucleotide C. polynucleotide D. oligonucleotide E. disachharide 32). According the rule the following proportion exists A G=C B G > C C A < T D C > G 33) According the rule the following proportion exists A G=C B G > C C A = T D C > G E both A and C 34) Which of the following is the largest? A phosphate group B organic base C sugar molecule D nucleoside E nucleotide 35) the accepted hypothesis to explain replication is A progressive theory B conservative theory C semiconservative theory D evolutionary theory 36) The three kinds of RNA molecules are A rRNA mRNA tRNA B dRNA tRNA sRNA C mRNA dRNA rRNA D sRNA tRNA dRNA E none of these are correct 37) DNA mutation may be caused by A environmental factors B radiation C chemical agents D may be caused as an error in replication E all of the above Metabolism - Chapter 12 _____ is the sum of all of the reactions that take place in a living thing. A. metabolism B. catabolism C. anabolism D. hydrolysis 2. _____ is defined as the reactions that break down large molecules into small ones and release energy in the form of ATP. A. metabolism B. catabolism C. anabolism D. hydrolysis 3. _____ is defined as the reactions that biosynthesize large molecules from small molecules consuming energy in the form of ATP. A. metabolism B. catabolism C. anabolism D. hydrolysis E. canabolism 4. Protein synthesis from amino acids a form of _____. A. metabolism B. catabolism C. anabolism D. hydrolysis 5. A metabolic pathway in which the final product is also a starting material is defined as a _____ pathway. A. linear B. circular C. spiral D. coupled 6. A metabolic pathway in which a series of reactions is used to repeatedly break down or build up a molecule is defined as a _____ pathway. A. linear B. circular C. spiral D. coupled 7. A metabolic pathway in which the product of one reaction is the reactant in the next reaction in a continuous series is defined as a _____ pathway. A. linear B. circular C. spiral D. coupled 8. The digestion of _____ begins in the mouth and continues in the small intestine where the large molecules are broken down into _____. A. proteins/amino acids B. carbohydrates/monosaccharides C. lipids/fatty acids and glycerol and monoacylglycerides D. fiber/starch 9. The digestion of _____ takes place in the stomach by the actions of enzymes operating at low pH. This digestion continues in the small intestine and the large molecules are broken down into _____. A. proteins/amino acids B. carbohydrates/monosaccharides C. lipids/fatty acids and glycerol and monoacylglycerides D. fiber/starch 10. The digestion of _____ occurs in the small intestine where the large molecules are emulsified by bile and are broken down into _____ before being absorbed into the blood stream. A. proteins/amino acids B. carbohydrates/monosaccharides C. lipids/fatty acids/glycerol and monoacylglycerides D. fiber/cellulose 11. During glycolysis and under aerobic conditions, pyruvate is converted into _____. A. lactate B. acetyl-CoA C. ketones D. ADP 12. _____ takes place in the cytoplasm while _____ takes place in the mitochondria. A. citric acid cycle/electron transport chain B. electron transport chain/glycolysis C. citric acid cycle/glycolysis D. glycolysis/citric acid cycle 13. The biosynthesis of glucose takes place in a series of reactions known as _____. A. glycolysis B. gluconeogenesis C. citric acid cycle D. electron transport chain 14. Glycolysis is a form of _____. A. metabolism B. catabolism C. anabolism D. hydrolysis 15. Acetyl-CoA produced as a result of glycolysis enters the _____ metabolic pathway. A. glycolysis B. gluconeogenesis C. citric acid cycle D. electron transport chain 16. After running marathon, a runner experiences muscle pain and cramping. This may be due to the production of A pyruvate B lactate C ethanol9alcohol0 D ketone bodies causing inflammation 17. The biosynthesis of fatty acids from glycerol and fatty acids is a form of _____. A. metabolism B. catabolism C. anabolism D. hydrolysis 18. Triglyceride digestion is initiated in the _____. A. mouth B. stomach C. small intestine D. liver 19. The digestion of proteins begins with hydrolysis of proteins catalyzed by an enzyme _____. A. chymotrypsin B. pepsin C. amylase D. lipase 20. Insulin reduces blood sugar by _____. A. increasing the rate of change of blood sugar to fructose. B. increasing the rate of glycogen metabolism. C. increasing the rate of glucose uptake by cells. D. increasing the concentration of glycogen phosphorylase. 21. Gluconeogenesis is a process by which glucose is produced _____. A. in the liver from non-carbohydrate sources B. in the mitochondrion if there is an excess of fructose C. by the enzymes located on the cristae D. by exactly reversing the process of glycolysis 22. What is the total yield of ATP obtained when 1 glucose molecule goes through glycolysis and the citric acid cycle? A. around 0 ATP B. around 20 ATP C. around 100 ATP D. around 38 ATP 23. The condition of ketoacidosis is _____. A. a potentially fatal buildup of acetoacetate or 3-hydroxybutyrate lowering blood pH. B. due to a lowered production of ketone bodies than is normal. C. the increase in pH of the cells due to ketone body production. D. only found when anaerobic catabolism of fat occurs. 24. Lipogenesis _____. A. produces fatty acids by means of a spiral pathway. B. produces fatty acids by joining two carbon atoms at a time. C. does not produce all of the fatty acids required by humans. . A, B, and C are correct choices. 25. NH4+ is normally excreted from the human body as _____. A. ammonium ions. B. urea. C. uremic acid. D. uric acid. 26. The locations of the catabolic reactions of glycolysis and citric acid cycle (in cell) are A mitochondria and cytoplasm B cytoplasm and mitochondria C mitochondria and mitochondria D nucleus and nucleus E none of the above 27. Identify the type of the food that gives the following digestion products: glucose, fatty acid and amino acid respectively A carbohydrate, carbohydrate, and fat B vitamin, minerals and lipids C nucleic acids, lipids, and proteins D lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates E carbohydrate, fat, and proteins 28. The organelle in the cell that is commonly known as powerhouse of cell is A. cytoplasm B. mitochondrion C. Golgi complex d. plasma membrane E. Ribosomes 29. Which of the following pairs/terms do not match with each other? A. glycogenesis – making glucose from glycogen B. lipogenesis – making lipids/triglycerides from glucose C. lipolysis – breaking of lipids to glycerol and fatty acids D. glycogenolysis – breaking of glycogen to glucose. 30. Most of the DNA is stored in 9cell) A. cytoplasm B. lososome C. endoplasmic reticulum D. nucleus