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Bio 30 Unit 3 / Unit 4 (Questions and Solutions)

BIO 30
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Unit 3 and 4Multiple ChoiceIdentify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.____ 1. Use the following information to answer the next question.The diagram shows condensation of chromatids into condensed chromosomes. The phase of cell division is calleda.prophasec.anaphaseb.metaphased.telophase____ 2. In humans, the diploid number of chromosomes is 46. How many chromosomes are in human liver cells and eggs, respectively?a.23 and 46c.46 and 46b.23 and 23d.46 and 23____ 3. Human cells have 23 pairs of chromosomes of which 22 are autosomal and homologous. One pair, the sex chromosomes, differ in structure and length, but still are considered homologous pair, due toa.same banding patternc.pairing together during meiosisb.same type of genes.d.same position of centromere____ 4. How do polyploids differ from haploids?a.Haploids have a single set of chromosomes while polyploids have multiple sets of chromosomes.b.Haploids have multiple sets of chromosomes while polyploids have a single set of chromosomes.c.Haploids have a double set of chromosomes while polyploids have a single set of chromosomesd.Haploids have .a single set of chromosomes while polyploids have a double set of chromosomes.____ 5. A dihybrid cross is one in which two traits with two pairs of genes are studied at once. For example, we cross tall plants with round seeds (TTRR) with dwarf plants and wrinkled seeds. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?a.3 : 1c.1 : 1b.9 : 3 : 3 : 1d.12 : 1____ 6. In a dihybrid cross, a homozygous plant with purple and axial flowers (PPAA) is crossed with a homozygous plant with white and top flowers (ppaa). If the purple flower trait is dominant over white flowers and axial flowers are dominant over top flowers, what phenotypic ratio will be produced in the F1 generation?a.purple and axial flowers: white and top flowers – 3: 1b.purple and axial: Purple and top: white and axial: white top – 9: 3: 3: 1c.all plants with purple and axial flowers – 4: 0d.purple and axial flowers: white and top flowers – 1: 1____ 7. A gene with more than two alleles is said to have multiple alleles. In humans a single gene with multiple alleles determines a person’s blood type. If an individual with blood type A mates with a person who has blood type B, what blood type can their offspring have?a.ABc.A, B, AB and Ob.A, B and ABd.AB and O____ 8. Use the following information to answer the next question.A monohybrid cross of two pure forms of red flowers and white flowers in Mirabilis jalapa plant with genotypes R1R1 and R2R2 produced all pink flowers. The F2 generation produced a phenotypic and genotypic ratio of 1: 2: 1.Which genetic mechanism can account for these results?a.dihybrid crossc.co-dominanceb.incomplete dominanced.multiple alleles____ 9. How is incomplete dominance differentiated from co-dominance?a.In incomplete dominance, both alleles are fully expressed while in co-dominance neither of the two alleles can completely cancel the presence of the other.b.In incomplete dominance, neither of the two alleles can completely conceal the presence of the other while in co-dominance both the alleles are fully expressed.c.In incomplete dominance, two alleles are present, while in co-dominance, more than two alleles are present.d.In incomplete dominance, more than two alleles are present, while in co-dominance, two alleles are present.____ 10. Two individual ova fertilized by separate sperm will result in the production of ___i___. A single zygote or blastocyst dividing into two separate bodies will lead to the development of ___ii___. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.RowiiiA.Identical twinsFraternal twinsB.Identical twinsIdentical twinsC.Fraternal twinsIdentical twinsD.Fraternal twinsFraternal twinsa.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 11. In a diploid cell for which 2n = 20, how many chromosomes will be present in daughter cells after Meiosis I and Meiosis II?a.10 and 10c.20 and 10b.10 and 20d.10 and 5____ 12. At the start of meiosis, a germ mother cell contains the___i___ number of chromosomes. On completion of meiosis the daughter cells will have the___ii___ number of chromosomes. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.RowiiiA.HaploidDiploidB.DiploidDiploidC.DiploidHaploidD.HaploidHaploida.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 13. Primary spermatocytes are produced from the spermatogonium in ___i___ Sepermatids are produced from secondary spermtocytes in ___ii___. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.RowiiiA.MitosisMeiosis IB.MitosisMitosisC.MitosisMeiosis IID.Meiosis IMeiosis IIa.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 14. If the chromosome number in a sepematogonium is 24, what will be the chromosome number in each sperm after the completion of spermatogenesis?a.12c.48b.24d.6____ 15. During the process of oogensis, oogonium produce primary oocytes which in turn, produce secondary oocytes. The type of cell division associated with each process respectively is:a.mitosis I and meiosis Ic.mitosis and meiosis IIb.mitosis I and meiosis IId.mitosis and meiosis I____ 16. If ten spore mother cells undergo meiosis and each cell has 20 chromosomes in it, how many spores will be produced and what will be the number of chromosomes in it?a.20 spores and 20 chromosomesc.40 spore and 20 chromosomesb.20 spores and 10 chromosomesd.40 spores and 10 chromosomes____ 17. How many primary spermatocytes and primary oocytes are required to produce 100 sperm and 100 eggs?a.25 primary spermatocytes and 25 primary oocytesb.100 primary spermatocytes and 100 primary oocytesc.25 primary spermatocytes and 100 primary oocytesd.100 primary spermatocytes and 25 primary oocytes____ 18. How many cells are required to produce 1000 cells in a complete mitotic and meiotic division?a.250 mitotic and 250 meiotic divisionsb.500 mitotic and 250 meiotic divisionsc.999 mitotic divisions and 250 meiotic divisionsd.999 mitotic and 250 meiotic divisions____ 19. At which stage of mitosis and meiosis are the linked chromatids separated?a.anaphase of mitosis and anaphase of meiosis-Ib.anaphase of mitosis and anaphase of meiosis-IIc.metaphase of mitosis and anaphase of meiosis-Id.anaphase of mitosis and metaphase of meiosis-II____ 20. The scientist who contributed the first information about the molecular structure of DNA in the in the twentieth century was:a.Levenec.Franklinb.Chargaffd.Watson____ 21. According to the Chargaff’s rule, in a cell the amount ofa.adenine is approximately equal to the amount of cytosineb.adenine is approximately equal to the amount of guaninec.adenine is approximately equal to thymine and cytosine is approximately equal to guanined.adenine and thymine is approximately equal to cytosine and guanine____ 22. From her observations, Francine concluded that ___i___ are located on the inside of the helix, and the ___ii___ are located on the outside, facing towards the watery nucleus of the cell. RowiiiA.nitrogenous basessugar phosphate backboneB.sugar phosphate backbonenitrogenous basesC.nucleotidesugar phosphate backboneD.sugar phosphate backbonenucleotidea.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 23. The nitrogen bases which have double ring structures are known as purine. Which of the following pairs of nitrogen bases is purine?a.Adenine and Cytosinec.Adenine and Guanineb.Adenine and Thymined.Cytosine and Thymine____ 24. A sample of DNA contains A and C nucleotides in the following proportion A = 16% and C = 34%. What will be the proportion of G and T nucleotides in this DNAa.G = 16% and T = 34%c.G = 16% and T = 16%b.G = 34% and T = 16%d.G = 34% and T = 34%____ 25. The double helix structure of DNA was proposed bya.Levenec.Waston and Crickb.Chargaffd.Escher and Franklin____ 26. In human DNA, if the percentage of adenine in a cell is 30.9%, what is the expected percentage of guanine?a.30%c.10%b.19%d.40%____ 27. Replication is the process of producing an exact copy of a molecule of DNA. In this process, the joining of nucleotides to extend a new strand of DNA is known as:a.initiationc.terminationb.elongationd.replication fork____ 28. DNA polymerase can catalyze elongation in the 5' to 3' direction. The strand that is replicating continuously in the 5' to 3' direction is known as the ___i___ and the other strand, known as the ___ii___, is replicated in short segments. The statement given above in completed by the information in a row ______. RowiiiA.lagginglaggingB.leadingleadingC.leadinglaggingD.laggingleading a.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 29. Replication starts at a specific nucleotide sequence called the replication origin. A group of enzymes that binds to the DNA at the replication origin and play role in cleaving and unravel a segment of the double helix is calleda.primasec.DNA ligaseb.helicased.DNA polymerase____ 30. Use the following information to answer the next question. The above diagram shows the flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA, and then to protein, often referred to as the central dogma. The two steps shown in the above diagram are ___i___ and ___ii___, respectively. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.RowiiiA.transcriptionreplication B.replication transcription C.translation transcription D.transcriptiontranslation a.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 31. ___i___ catalyzes the cleavage of DNA at a specific nucleotide sequence. ___ii___ splices DNA into fragments. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.RowiiiA.DNA polymeraseDNA ligaseB.restriction endonucleaseDNA ligase C.DNA Ligaserestriction endonuclease D.restriction endonucleaserestriction endonuclease a.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 32. Most prokaryotic organisms produce one or more enzymes to defend themselves against the infection by foreign DNA. These enzymes are known asa.DNA Ligasec.helicaseb.restriction enzymesd.polymerase____ 33. Use the following information to answer the next question.In the above diagram, ‘1’ represents thea.sticky endsc.primerb.restriction sitesd.restriction fragments____ 34. Use the following information to answer the next question.The enzyme that catalyzes the joining of fragments to form recombinant DNA is:a.DNA polymerasec.helicaseb.DNA ligased.restriction endonuclease____ 35. Restriction endonuclease and ligase are two types of enzymes used in the process of genetic engineering, i.e., the manipulation of genes. The restriction endonuclease differs from ligase in that ita.breaks the DNA at ends, while ligase causes the breaks in DNA from interiorb.joins the fragments of DNA, while ligase breaks the DNA into fragmentsc.breaks the DNA at specific points, while the ligase joins the fragments of DNAd.breaks the DNA apart at each nucleotide, while ligase use the pieces to translate____ 36. Use the following information to answer the next questionIn the process of genetic engineering, recombinant DNA is produced by combining genetic material from two different sources. For this technique, genetic engineers are especially interested in a specific group of enzymes called restriction endonuclease.These enzymes are preferred because theya.join the DNA fragments at 3' endsb.join the DNA fragments at 5' endsc.cut DNA at specific sites within the DNAd.cut DNA from their 5' or 3' ends____ 37. Modern researchers can manipulate genetic material to alter genes and blend plant, animal and bacterial DNA; this process is known as genetic engineering. The enzymes that are commonly used in this researches area.restriction endonuclease and ligasec.ligase and polyemeraseb.primase and polymerased.polymerase and helicase____ 38. Imagine that you are analyzing a DNA sample from the heart tissue of an animal. Use the following information to answer the next question. NucleotidePresence in DNA sampleAdenineCytosineGuanineThymine23%???What will be the composition of the remaining nucleotides?CylosineGuanineThymineA.23%27%27%B.27%23%23%C.27%27%23%D. 27%23%23%a.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 39. The two chains of the double helix structure of DNA, as given by Watson and Crick, are ___i___, due to bonding of nitrogen base pairs by hydrogen bonds, and they are ___ii___ to each other. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.RowiiiA.complementarynon-parallelB.supplementarynon-parallel C.supplementaryparallelD.complementaryparallel a.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 40. Translation is a process in which a polypeptide is produced from mRNA. What is the role of tRNA in this process?a.carries a particular amino acid to the correct codon siteb.stores genetic informationc.provides information to a ribosomed.carries genetic information from DNA____ 41. If an mRNA has ACU GCU GGC CGU sequence of nucleotides, what will be the sequence of nucleotides in its master strand of DNA?a.UGA CGA CCG GCAc.TGA CGA CCG GCAb.TGA CGTCCG GCTd.UGA CGA CCG GCT____ 42. Some restriction enzymes will cut a particular strand of DNA the same way each time, producing an identical set of ___i___, and will have a few unpaired nucleotides in a single strand at each end referred to as ___ii___. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.RowiiiA.restriction fragmentsrestriction siteB.restriction fragmentssticky ends C.sticky ends restriction fragmentD. staggered endssticky ends a.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 43. The process that produces haploid gametes from diploid cells in the ovaries is known asa.sporogenesisc.oogenesisb.spermatogenesisd.amitosis____ 44. What is the outcome of meiosis?a.results in formation of genetically similar cellsb.results in formation of cells, which have haploid number of chromosomes and are genetically differentc.results in formation of cells, which have diploid number of chromosomes and are genetically similard.results in formation of cells that have haploid number of chromosomes, and are genetically similar____ 45. Meiotic cell division is also known as reduction division. It occurs during gametogenesis. If a diploid cell has 12 chromosomes, how many chromatids will be seen in a cell at the Anaphase I and Anaphase II stages?a.12 and 12c.24 and 24b.24 and 12d.12 and 24____ 46. How do the daughter cells of mitosis differ from those of meiosis?a.The number of chromosomes gets halved in mitosis, and remains the same in meiosis.b.The number of chromosomes is the same in mitosis, but gets halved in meiosis.c.The number of chromosomes gets doubled in mitosis, and remains the same in mitosis.d.The number of chromosomes remains the same in mitosis, but gets doubled in meiosis.____ 47. If a cell has five pairs of chromosomes, and if this cell undergoes cell division, the number of chromosomes found in anaphase I and anaphase II, along with the chromosome arrangement with respect to chromatids, are ___i___ and ___ii___, respectively. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.RowiiiA.10 chromosomes with single chromatid10 chromosomes with linked sister chromatidsB.20 chromosomes with linked sister chromatids10 chromosomes with single chromatidC.10 chromosomes with single chromatid20 chromosomes with single chromatid D.10 chromosomes with linked sister chromatids10 chromosomes with linked sister chromatids a.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 48. How is the outcome of meiosis different from the outcome of mitosis?a.The daughter cells produced in mitosis are genetically different from the parent cells, but have the same number of chromosomes, while these are genetically similar in case of meiosis and have fewer chromosomes.b.The daughter cells produced in mitosis are genetically similar to the parent cells and have the same number of chromosomes, while these are genetically different in meiosis and have half the number of chromosomes.c.The daughter cells produced in both cases are genetically similar to the parent cells, but in meiosis, there are fewer chromosomes.d.The daughter cells produced in both cases are genetically different, but in mitosis, there are fewwer chromosomes in daughter cells.____ 49. Use the following information to answer the next question.Which stages of cell divisions are represented by the above diagram respectively?a.metaphase of mitosis and prophase of meiosis Ib.prophase of mitosis and prophase of meiosis Ic.prophase of mitosis and prophase of meiosis IId.prophase of meiosis I and prophase of meiosis II____ 50. Which of the following statements is true with regard to the functions of mitosis and meiosis?a.Mitosis plays a role in formation of haploid cells with recombination of genes, while meiosis plays a role in multiplication.b.Mitosis plays a role in multiplication, healing, repair and growth, while meiosis results in the formation of haploid cells with recombination of genes.c.Both mitosis and meiosis play a role in multiplication, growth, healing and repair.d.Both mitosis and meiosis play a role in the formation of germ cells and recombination of genes.____ 51. With complete dominance, one allele conceals the phenotype effect of another gene, while with incomplete dominance, neither of the two alleles can conceal the effect of each other. Which of the following rows represents the difference in interactions in their phenotypes ratio, in F2 generation?RowComplete dominanceIncomplete dominanceA.1 : 11 : 2 : 1B.1 : 2 : 13 : 1C.3 : 11 : 2 : 1D.3 : 11 : 1a.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 52. The gene for white eye colour is present on the X-chromosome in Drosophila, and is a recessive trait. A female fly with white eyes in the F1 generation can be produced if it inherits an X-chromosome witha.recessive allele from father onlyc.recessive alleles from each parentb.recessive allele from mother onlyd.dominant alleles from each parent____ 53. If we cross a pure red-eyed female rat with a white-eyed male rat, what is the expected ratio of male-to-female offspring from this cross (red colour is dominant over white colour, and the gene for this trait is sex-linked)?a.Three red-eyed males and one white-eyed femaleb.All white-eyed males and all red-eyed femalesc.All red-eyed males and all hybrid red-eyed femalesd.50 % red-eyed females and 50% white-eyed males____ 54. In humans and most other animals, only the male carries a Y chromosome. In these species, Y-linked traits are passed from fathera.to daughterc.to both daughter and sonb.to sond.neither to son, nor to daughter____ 55. The human female has two X chromosomes. In which of the following ways will x-linked traits be inherited among humans?a.from mother to daughter onlyb.from mother to son onlyc.from mother to both son and daughterd.from mother neither to son, nor to daughter____ 56. A woman who has normal vision and is heterozygous for colour blindness has children with a man who is colour blind. What is the expected ratio of genotypes among their children?a.Xc Xc : Xc Xc:Xc Y :Xc y1 :1 : 1 :1b.XC XC: Xc Y:XC Y :1 :2 : 1c.XC Xc: XC Y:XC Y 2 : 1:1d.XC XC : XC Xc:XC Y1: 1 : 2____ 57. In our bodies, individual chromosomes contain some genes of maternal origin and some genes of paternal origin. This phenomenon is caused bya.linkagec.non-disjunctionb.mutationd.crossing over____ 58. A scientist was examining a human cell with 22 pairs of autosomes, an X chromosome and a Y chromosome. What conclusions can we drawn about the cell?a.It is a somatic, diploid and male cell.b.It is a somatic, diploid and female cell.c.It is a gametic, haploid and male cell.d.It is a gametic, diploid and male cell.____ 59. The plant body is haploid in the case of gametophytes. What is the number of alleles needed for any single trait in the gametophytic plant body?a.1c.3b.2d.4____ 60. Use the following information to answer next question.The formation of sperm cells from stem cells is known as spermatogenesis. There are three phases in the process of spermatogenesis.Which of the following phases is not a part of spermatogenesis?a.mitosisc.amitosisb.meiosis Id.meiosis II____ 61. Use the following information to answer next question.The formation of sperm cells from stem cells is known as spermatogenesis. There are three phases in the process of spermatogenesis.The cells formed after the second meiotic division in meiosis is known asa.primary spermatocytesc.spermatidsb.secondary spermatocytesd.spermatozoa____ 62. Meiosis involves two phases, meiosis I and meiosis II. This type of cell division occurs during the formation of both sperm and ovum. The first meiotic division of the primary spermatocyte results in two secondary spermatocytes. .What is the result of the first meiotic division of the primary oocyte?a.two secondary oocytesb.two polar bodiesc.two ovumd.one secondary oocyte and one polar body____ 63. Meiosis is significant in sexual reproduction. Absence of meiosis may lead toa.a decrease in the number of chromosomes after fertilizationb.an equal number of chromosomes after fertilizationc.an increase in the number of chromosomes after fertilizationd.the chromosome number remaining constant____ 64. For 1% of all births, a woman gives birth to twins or other multiples. ___i___ twins are not alike. __ii___ twins are formed when one fertilized egg(s) develops into two offspring. The statement above is completed by the information in row:Row iiiA.FraternalIdenticalB.IdenticalFraternalC.FraternalFraternalD.IdenticalIdenticala.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 65. The series of events that a cell undergoes between one cell division and another is known asa.synapsisc.cytokinesisb.interphased.karyokinesis____ 66. Use the following information to answer next question.A cell cycle includes the events occurring in a cell between one cell division and another. A cell cycle includes four distinct phases.Which of the following three phases of cell cycle are collectively called the interphase?a.G1, S and mitotic phasesc.G1, S and G2 phasesb.S, mitotic and G2 phasesd.S, G2 and mitotic phases____ 67. Use the following information to answer next question.Each phase of the cell cycle makes the cell ready to enter the other phase. The various processes that occur in a cell cycle are cytokinesis, karyokinesis, transcription, duplication, etc.The replication of DNA occurs duringa.G1 phasec.G2 phaseb.S phased.mitotic phase____ 68. There are four phases of mitosis. The last phase of mitosis is followed by cytokinesis. Which of the following phases is the starting phase of mitosis?a.metaphasec.telophaseb.prophased.anaphase____ 69. Telophase is the final phase of mitotic cell division. Which of the following events does not occur during telophase?a.appearance of nucleolusb.appearance of nucleusc.approximately equal distribution of organellesd.division of centrioles____ 70. Telophase is the last phase of the mitotic cell division, which is followed by the division of cytoplasm. The division of cytoplasm in a cell is known asa.cytoplasmic streamingc.karyokinesisb.cytokinesisd.fission____ 71. A cell passes through various phases during the cell cycle. In which phase of the cell cycle does the exact replica of genome occur?a.G1 phasec.S phaseb.G2 phased.mitotic phase____ 72. Use the following informational to answer the next question. Spindle fibres facilitate the movement of chromosomes within a cell. In the above diagram, the spindle fibres are numbereda.1c.3b.2d.4____ 73. In which of the following phases of meiosis does the process of crossing over of chromosomes take place?a.prophase Ic.anaphase Ib.prophase IId.anaphase II____ 74. Use the following information to answer the next question. Sometimes chromosomes or chromatids do not separate as they normally would during meiosis and this phenomenon is called non-disjuction. This phenomenon has occurred in the above diagrams duringa.anaphase II in A and anphase I in Bb.anaphase I in A and anaphase II in Bc.metaphase I in A and metaphase II in Bd.metaphase II in A and metaphase I in B____ 75. What would be the effect on the number of chromosomes in gametes due to non-disjunction?a.The chromosome number of the gametes remains the same as the parent somatic cellb.The gametes will have either too few or too many chromosomesc.Some gametes will have all the chromosomes, while others will not have any chromosomesd.Gametes will have half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell____ 76. Which syndrome has symptoms of impairment of physical growth, below-average cognitive ability, almond-shaped eyes, enlarged tongue, and congenital heart defects in children?a.Down’s syndromec.Patau’s syndromeb.Edward’s syndromed.Turner’s syndrome____ 77. The name of the sex-chromosomal disorder in which monosomy occurs isa.Patau’s syndromec.Turner ’s syndromeb.Klinefelter’s syndromed.Jacob syndrome____ 78. What will be the number of chromosomes in Turner’s syndrome and Klinefelter's syndrome of an organism whose haploid number is 20?a.39 in Turner’s syndrome and 41 in Klinefelter’s syndromeb.41 in Turner’s syndrome and 39 in Klinefelter’s syndromec.19 in Turner’s syndrome and 21 in Klinefelter’s syndromed.38 in Turner’s syndrome and 41 in Klinefelter’s syndrome____ 79. Edward’s syndrome and Patau’s syndromes are both genetical disorders of autosomes. Both are due to the presence of three copies of two different autosomes. Edward’s syndrome and Patau’s syndrome occur due to the the trisomy of chromosome numbersa.13 and 18, respectivelyc.18 and 21, respectivelyb.18 and 13, respectivelyd.13 and 21, respectively____ 80. When there is one extra chromosome due to non-disjunction, it is called trisomy. In such a case, the gamete has one extra chromosome of a homologous pair. In Jacob’s syndrome, the extra chromosome is present ina.X chromosomec.chromosome number 13b.Y chromosomed.chromosome number 18____ 81. As the age of an individual increases, which of the following phenomenon has greater chance of occurring (as compared with a younger individual)?a.More crossing over, less nondisjunctionb.More nondisjunction, less crossing overc.Both nondisjunction and crossing over will increase with aged.Both nondisjunction and crossing over will decrease with age____ 82. Use the following information to answer the next question.What is the number of plants with the phenotype of green and wrinkled seed?a.9c.3b.6d.1____ 83. Use the following information to answer the next question.What is the number of plants with the phenotype of yellow and wrinkled seed?a.9c.3b.6d.1____ 84. Mendel conducted experiments on a particular plant for the laws of inheritance. Which of the following plants was used by Mendel in his experiments?a.mustardc.peab.riced.mango____ 85. An individual with two identical alleles for trait, such as RR or rr, is ___i___ for the trait, while an individual with two different alleles for a trait, such as Rr, is ___ii___ for the trait. The statement given above is completed by information in row ______.RowiiiA.homozygousheterozygousB.heterozygoushomozygousC.homozygoushomozygousD.heterozygousheterozygousa.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 86. ___i___ is the combination of alleles for any given trait in an individual whereas ___ii___ is the physical form of an individual. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.RowiiiA.phenotypegenotypeB.genotypephenotypeC.gametephenotypeD.genomephenotypea.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 87. Mendel crossed true breeding plants that had yellow pods with true breeding plants that had green pods. Yellow pod colour (Y) is dominant over green pod colour (y). Predict the genotypes and phenotypes of F1 generation.a.yellow pods with genotype yyc.green pods with genotype Yyb.yellow pods with genotype Yyd.green pods with genotype Yy____ 88. The first gene to be mapped to a specific chromosome was the gene coding for white eye colour in Drosophila melanogaster. This gene is located on which chromosome?a.chromosome No. 1c.X chromosomeb.chromosoem No. 2d.Y chromosome____ 89. ___i___ sex chromosome is present in male Drosophila and ___ii___ sex chromosome is found in female Drosophila. This statement is completed by the information in row ______.RowiiiA.XYXXB.XXXOC.XOXXD.XXXYa.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 90. Which of the following scientists proposed that all new cells arise from pre-existing cells?a.Robert Hookec.Rudolf Virchowb.Anton von Leeuwenhoekd.Walther Flemming____ 91. The process of cytokinesis in plant cells occurs when the two daughter cell nuclei are separated by a structure called thea.cell platec.kinetochoreb.centromered.telomere____ 92. Which one of the following events does not occur during mitotic prophase?a.appearance of chromosomesc.disappearance of the nucleolusb.appearance of the spindle apparatusd.separation of the centromeres____ 93. Which one of the following events does not occur during the mitotic prophase?a.chromatin condenses into chromosomesb.nuclear membrane breaks downc.spindle fibres break downd.centrioles migrate to opposite poles____ 94. Use the following information to answer the next question.Colchicine is a chemical that stops the process of cell division at the metaphase stage. The affected cell proceeds directly to interphase and its chromosome number is doubled. Botanists can apply colchicine to dividing plant cells to produce polyploid plants.Polyploid plants may be commercially valuable because some of them havea.larger or seedless fruitc.drought toleranceb.frost resistanced.shorter life cycles____ 95. Twenty-three pairs of chromosomes are present in the somatic cells of humans. Of these, how many pairs are sex chromosomes?a.1c.3b.2d.4____ 96. The initiation codon for the process of protein synthesis in eukaryotes isa.UGAc.GCUb.AUGd.AAU____ 97. Cells become haploid during which of the following phases of meiosis?a.metaphase Ic.telophase Ib.anaphase Id.anaphase II____ 98. Which of the following plant parts is usually used for studying mitotic cell division?a.stem tipc.budb.root tipd.flower____ 99. Which of the following syndromes occurs only in males and is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome?a.Edward Syndromec.Triplo-X Syndromeb.Klinefelter Syndromed.Turner Syndrome____ 100. A chart used to analyze the results of crosses by a visual technique that shows the possible genotypes of offspring is called aa.Chi squarec.test crossb.Punnett squared.dihybrid cross____ 101. During prophase I, homologous chromosomes pair off and create tetrads in a process calleda.synapsisc.linkageb.recombinationd.cross-over____ 102. The phenomenon in which genes present on the same chromosome remain together as gametes are produced is known asa.non-disjunctionc.synapsisb.cross-overd.linkage____ 103. Read the information given below to answer the next question.In humans, a simple explanation of hair texture suggests that it is controlled by two alleles. One allele produces curly hair and the other produces straight hair. A person who is heterozygous for the alleles will have wavy hair. A man with curly hairs has children with a woman whose hair is straight. They have four children, all of whom have wavy hair. Based on the information given, it is reasonable to conclude thata.both parents are heterozygousb.both parents are homozygousc.the man is homozygous and the woman is heterozygousd.the woman is homozygous and the man is heterozygous____ 104. Which of the following human diseases is sex-linked?a.Huntington’s diseasec.hemophiliab.cystic fibrosisd.phenylketonuria (PKU)____ 105. Queen Victoria was a carrier of hemophilia, but there is no record of the disease in any of her ancestors. It is reasonable to suggest that she became a carrier of hemophilia as a result ofa.recombinationc.inbreedingb.a mutationd.crossing over____ 106. Which of the following human characteristics occurs as result of a dominant allele?a.albinismc.polydactylyb.hemophiliad.colour blindness____ 107. An organism with the genotype AaBb produces gametes whose genotypes area.AB, Ab, aB and abc.aa and bbb.Aa and Bbd.AB and ab____ 108. DNA and RNA molecules consist of long chains of smaller units calleda.sugarsc.phosphate groupsb.nucleotidesd.purines____ 109. The number of different types of codons in the genetic code isa.16c.48b.32d.64____ 110. The start codon in the mRNA molecule is AUG, which also encodes for the amino acida.alaninec.methionineb.lysined.proline____ 111. A primer plays a very important role in DNA replication. The primer for the process of DNA replication is aa.short strand of DNAc.DNA ligaseb.short strand of RNAd.DNA polymerase____ 112. RNA polymerase uses ___i___ as a template to synthesize ___ii___. The statement above is completed by the information in row ______.RowiiiA.DNARNAB.RNADNAC.DNAproteinD.RNAproteina.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 113. A circular DNA molecule that is separate from the chromosomal DNA in the cell of a bacterium is known as a (an)a.plasmidc.chimerab.restriction fragmentd.endonuclease____ 114. Use the following information to answer the next question.The life cycles of some plants contains two alternating generations of adults. The diploid adult is called the sporophyte generation and the haploid adult is the gametophyte generation. The diploid plants of the sporophyte generations produce spores by the process ofa.amitosisc.mitosisb.meiosisd.binary fission____ 115. One of the goals of the Human Genome Project was to determine sequence of the three billion base pairs found in human DNA. When was the Human Genome Project completed?a.2002c.2004b.2003d.2005____ 116. Use the following information to answer the next question.Imagine that A and B represent two cells, each having 42 chromosomes. Cell A undergoes mitotic cell division, while cell B undergoes meiotic cell division.What is the number of chromosomes present in the daughter cells produced from cell A?a.21c.63b.42d.84____ 117. When an organism possesses two copies of the same allele, its genotype is said to be ___i___. A genotype that contains two different alleles is said to be ___ii___. The statement above is best completed by the information in row ______.RowiiiA.recessivehybridB.dominanthybridC.homozygousheterozygousD.heterozygousheterozygousa.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 118. The ability to roll your tongue is controlled by a dominant allele (T); people who have two copies of the recessive allele (t) cannot role their tongues. A cross between parents whose genotypes are TT and tt will produce a family with which of the following phenotypes?a.all will be tongue-rollersb.none will be tongue-rollersc.half will be tongue-rollers, half will not be tongue-rollersd.75% will be tongue-rollers, 25% will not be tongue-rollers____ 119. Which of the following types of dominance was discovered by Gregor Mendel?a.incomplete dominancec.codominanceb.complete dominanced.intermediate inheritance____ 120. The discovery of the process of transformation in bacteria gave a clue that DNA encodes genetic information. The scientist who discovered the process of transformation wasa.Frederick Griffithc.Rosalind Franklinb.Phoebus Levened.Erwin Chargoff____ 121. Use the following information to answer the next question.In the early part of the last century, biologists thought that proteins might be the carriers of genetic information. It is now known that DNA is the genetic molecule in living organisms and that RNA carries genetic information in some viruses. Proteins are not suitable to be the genetic molecules within cells because theya.are large organic compoundsb.are composed of building blocks called amino acidsc.do not replicate themselvesd.catalyze biochemical reactions____ 122. The allele that produces hemophilia is recessive and sex-linked. Suppose that the daughter of a hemophilic man has children with a man whose blood clots normally. Which of the following statements about their children will be true?a.All their children will have hemophilia.b.All their sons will have hemophilia.c.Some of their sons could have hemophilia.d.All of their children will have normal blood clotting.____ 123. The Okazaki fragment is formed during the process ofa.DNA replicationc.transcriptionb.DNA sequencingd.translation____ 124. DNA is absent from which of the following organelles?a.nucleusc.mitochondrionb.ribosomed.chloroplast____ 125. The DNA ligase does NOT play any role ina.DNA replicationb.DNA repairc.cutting DNA into fragmentsd.the creation of recombinant DNA plasmid____ 126. The germ cells undergo the process of ___i___ while the somatic cells undergo the process of ___ii___. The statement above is completed by information given in row ______.RowiiiA.mitosisrecombinationB.recombinationmeiosisC.meiosismitosis D.mitosis meiosisa.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 127. In which organisms is polyploidy most common?a.insectsc.plantsb.humansd.fish____ 128. Use the information given below to answer the next question.Population 1. Randomly mating population with immigration and emigrationPopulation 2. Large breeding population without mutation and natural selectionPopulation 3. Small breeding population without immigration and emigrationPopulation 4. Randomly mating population with mutation and emigrationWhich of the populations given above may be at genetic equilibrium?a.1c.3b.2d.4____ 129. A population is a group of organisms of the same species that live together in a defined area and time. The concept that allele frequencies in a population will remain the same from one generation to the next when the population is in a state of genetic equilibrium was proposed bya.Hardy and Weinbergc.Jacob and Monodb.Lederberg and Tatumd.Watson and Crick____ 130. Change in allele frequencies in a small breeding population due to chance events is known as ___i___. The net movement of alleles from one population to another due to migration of individuals is known as ___ii___. The statement given above is completed by the information in row: Row iiiA.gene flowgenetic driftB.genetic driftgene flowC.gene poolgenetic driftD.gene flowgene poola.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 131. Use the information given below to answer the next question.Fourteen species of finches currently inhabit in the Galapagos Islands. Charles Darwin believed that a few birds of the same species were initially blown by the wind to the Galapagos Islands. Colonization of the Galapagos Islands by a small population of finches provides an example of thea.founder effectc.apoptosisb.chloride shiftd.sympatric speciation____ 132. Use the following information to answer the next question.The diagram above represents a process that leads toward a change in gene pool diversity. Which of the following processes does the above diagram represent?a.mutationc.nonrandom matingb.natural selectiond.gene flow____ 133. For a given gene that is controlled by two alleles, what is the sum of the frequency of the dominant allele and the recessive allele in a population?a.1.00c.3.00b.2.00d.4.00____ 134. For a given gene that is controlled by two alleles, what percentage of the alleles do p and q together account for?a.25%c.75%b.50%d.100%____ 135. Which of the following equations represents the Hardy-Weinberg equation correctly?a.2p2 + pq + q2 = 1.00c.p2 + pq + 2q2 = 1.00b.p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1.00d.p2 + pq + q2 = 1.00____ 136. Use the following information to answer the next question.Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disease that affects the entire body. It also results in the early death of an individual. One in every 2500 children is born with this disorder. From the information given above, which of the following values of the Hardy-Weinberg equation can be calculated first?a.pc.p2b.qd.q2____ 137. Evolution is a gradual process that results in a change in the genetic composition of a population. There are two types of evolution: microevolution and macroevolution. An example of microevolution is thea.origin of eukaryotic cellsb.extinction of dinosaursc.development of antibiotic-resistant bacterial strainsd.origin of man____ 138. Evolutionary adaptation refers to the phenotypic adjustment of an individual to a changing environment. Which of following mechanisms of evolution causes evolutionary adaptation?a.natural selectionc.mutationb.genetic driftd.extinction____ 139. While most mutations are neutral, some can be harmful or beneficial. The process of ___i___ occurs when a mutation produces a phenotype that causes one individual to have a ___ii___ over another. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.RowiiiAnatural selectionsurvival disadvantageBnatural selectionsurvival advantageCartificial selectionsurvival disadvantageDartificial selectionsurvival advantagea.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 140. To achieve genetic equilibrium, a population needs to meet five conditions. Each condition impacts the genetic diversity of the population. Nonrandom mating ___i___ genetic diversity in a population and gene flow ___ii___ genetic diversity among populations. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.RowiiiA.limitslimitsB.decreasesincreasesC.increaseslimitsD.decreasesdecreasesa.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 141. A gene pool is the sum of all the alleles for all the genes in a population. Change in the gene pool of a population depends on many factors. Which of the following factors will not lead to a change in the gene pool of a population?a.mutationc.genetic driftb.natural selectiond.random mating____ 142. Use the following information to answer the next question.One can conclude from the above graph that in a predator-prey relationship cyclea.an increase in the predator population is followed by an increase in the prey populationb.an increase in the predator population is followed by a decrease in the prey populationc.a decrease in the predator population does not affect the prey populationd.a decrease in the prey population does not affect the predator population____ 143. Use the following information to answer the next question.The average relative density of snowshoe hare populations is highest when there is ___i___ food and there are ___ii___ predators. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.RowiiiA.abundantmoreB.abundantfewerC.lessmoreD.lessfewera.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 144. A permanent or long-term association between organisms of different species in a community is calleda.symbiosisc.mutationb.linkaged.recombination____ 145. Humans benefit from the presence of certain vitamin K–producing bacteria that live in the large intestine. The bacteria get food and shelter in return. This relationship is an example ofa.parasitismc.commensalismb.predationd.mutualism____ 146. Parasitism is a type of symbiotic association in which the parasite ___i___ and the host ___ii___. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.RowiiiA.is harmedis unaffectedB.is harmedbenefitsC.benefitsis harmedD.benefitsis unaffecteda.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 147. Use the following information to answer the next question.When intraspecific competition occurs within a species, some individuals may have a competitive advantage over others. For example, some members of a plant species may be able to grow longer roots and absorb more water. These individuals have an advantage over other members of the species during periods of drought, and are able to survive to pass this competitive trait to their offspring. From the information given above, one can conclude that intraspecific competition promotesa.inbreedingc.artificial selectionb.natural selectiond.speciation____ 148. Both intraspecific and interspecific competition affect population growth. Which of the following statements about how population growth is affected by competition is correct?a.Only intraspecific competition increases population growth.b.Only interspecific competition increases population growth.c.Both types of competition increase population growth.d.Both types of competition limit population growth.____ 149. The strategy in which an organism matches itself with its surroundings in order to protect itself from predators is known as ___i___. The strategy in which an organism looks like another organism, fooling predators into believing it is that organism, is known as ___ii___. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.RowiiiAmimicrycamouflageBcamouflagemimicryCdeceptive behaviormimicryDcamouflagedeceptive behaviora.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 150. Use the information given below to answer the next question.Mimicry is the protective strategy in which an organism resembles another organism, fooling predators into believing it is that organism. The ash borer is a moth that mimics the common wasp. Some predators avoid the moth, taking it to be a wasp, even though the moth has no sting.Which of the following types of mimicry does the ash borer show?a.Batesian mimicryc.Wasmannian mimicryb.Müllerian mimicryd.Peckhamian mimicry____ 151. Which of the following organisms is most likely to begin the process of primary succession?a.herbsc.lichensb.shrubsd.trees____ 152. Primary succession is a gradual change in community structure that begins with a ___i___ community and leads towards a ___ii___ community. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.RowiiiApioneerclimaxBseralpioneerCpioneerseralDseralclimaxa.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 153. The term ___i___ refers to the movement of individuals out of a population and the term ___ii___ refers to the movement of individuals into a population. The statement given above is completed by the information in row RowiiiAemigrationimmigrationBimmigrationemigrationCbirthdeathDdeathbirtha.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 154. Decrease in the size of population is caused by ___i___ and ___ii___. The statement given above is completed by the information in row:RowiiiA.natalitymortalityB.immigrationnatalityC.mortalityemigrationD.emigrationimmigrationa.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 155. Use the following information to answer the next question.While studying a population of finches, a researcher notices that the change in population size for the finches after one year is negative. To explain this, the researcher makes a few statements.Which of the following statements about the above population is correct?a.The natality rate would have been higher than the mortality rateb.The rate of immigration would have been higher than the rate of emigration.c.The sum of births and immigration would have been greater than the sum of deaths and emigration.d.The sum of deaths and emigration would have been greater than the sum of births and immigration.____ 156. Use the following information to answer the next question.In a study conducted on a population of kingfishers, the number of kingfishers at the beginning of the study was 500. The target of the study was to increase the population size of the kingfishers to 800 by the end of one year. Unfortunately, the target was not achieved. In that year, there were 100 live births, 50 deaths, 200 immigrations and 75 emigrations in the population. Scientists provided certain means by which the target could be achieved.Which of the following combinations of factors would lead to the achievement of the target.a.Births decreased by 50 and deaths increased by 100b.Immigration increased by 75 and emigration increased by 20.c.Births increased by 50 and immigration increased by 75.d.Immigration increased by 75 and deaths decreased by 50.____ 157. Biotic potential is the highest possible per capita growth rate for a population. Which of the following would limit the biotic potential of an organism?a.many offspring per reproductive cycleb.many reproductive cycles in a life spanc.limited resourcesd.a high percentage of offspring surviving long enough to reproduce.____ 158. Use the following information to answer the next question.A student studied two areas in which succession took place. In area I, the succession occurred in the absence of soil and different species of plants of animals slowly populated the area. In area II, the succession took place after the previous vegetation was destroyed by fire. Identify the type of succession that took place in these two areas:a.Area I - primary succession,Area II - primary successionb.Area I - secondary succession,Area II - secondary successionc.Area I - secondary succession,Area II - primary successiond.Area I - primary succession,Area II - secondary succession____ 159. Which of the following statements about succession is not correct?a.Succession is the replacement of one species by another in an ecosystem.b.Succession is influenced by both biotic and abiotic factors.c.Primary succession begins on bare rocks where there is no soil present.d.Secondary succession is relatively slower than primary succession.____ 160. Use the following information to answer the next question.Given above is a diagram of a forest, which underwent a primary succession. The high trees are an example of:a.pioneer communityc.abiotic communityb.primary communityd.climax community____ 161. The availability of resources is one factor that can limit the size of a population in a given environment. The maximum population size that an environment can sustain over a period of time is calleda.biotic potentialc.growth rateb.environmental resistanced.carrying capacity____ 162. Which of the following statements about environmental resistance is not correct?a.It is the effect of various factors that influence the growth of a population in an area.b.It includes biotic (density dependent) and abiotic (density independent) factors.c.It allows a population to grow at its biotic potential.d.It determines the carrying capacity of the habitat concerned.____ 163. Use the following information to answer the next question.Two different populations of commander butterfly were studied over a period of two years. The following results were obtained.Population size of commander butterfliesPopulationOriginal sizeFinal size124362873221852649Which of the following concepts would best compare the change in population size of the two populations?a.Growth rate (gr)c.Density (Dp)b.Biotic potential (r)d.Per capita growth rate (cgr)____ 164. An original count of a deer population in an Alberta forest determined that 238 deer were present. In a later study, this number increased to 431. Using this data, one could determine the _____ the population.a.growth rate ofc.deaths inb.per capita growth rate ofd.births in____ 165. Which of the following statements about population density is not correct?a.Population density is the number of individuals per unit area or volume.b.Population density is always a whole number.c.Population density can change over time.d.Population density can be used used to determine the size of a population.____ 166. Use the following information to answer the next question.In a study of finches, ornithologists determined that there were 50 birds living in a 50m2 garden.Which of the following variables of ecology can be calculated from the given information?a.growth rate of the populationb.per capita growth rate of the populationc.density of the populationd.biotic potential of the population____ 167. Use the following information to answer the next question.Two populations of birds were studied in a forest that had an area of 100 m2. The density of bird population I was 8 birds/m2. Population II had a density of 12 birds/m2. A scientist noted a few statements in his report. Which of the following statements about the two bird populations is not correct?a.The study area covered by both Population I and Population II is 10 km2.b.Population I has 400 more birds than population II.c.The number of birds in population II is 1200.d.The number of birds in population I is 800.____ 168. Which of the following statements about exponential growth is not correct?a.A population growing exponentially in an area means that the environment has reached its carrying capacity.b.An exponentially growing population is represented by a J-shaped curve.c.When a population is growing exponentially, it is not limited by factors like food supply and water.d.The larger the size of an exponentially growing population the faster it grows.____ 169. A population of beetles is introduced into an environment where conditions are ideal allowing the beetle population to reach its biotic potential for many generations. This population of beetles showsa.logistic growthc.per capita growthb.linear growthd.exponential growth____ 170. Which of the following statements about logistic growth is not correct?a.A population growing logistically has reached the carrying capacity of the environment in which it lives.b.A logistically growing population is represented by an S-shaped curve.c.When a population is growing logistically, it is limited by factors such as food supply and water.d.In a logistically growing population, the birth rate is much greater than the death rate.____ 171. A population reproducing at its biotic potential shows ___i___ and a population reproducing in an area where it has reached the carrying capacity shows ___ii___. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______. iii Aexponential growthlogistic growth Bper capita growthexponential growth Clogistic growthexponential growth Dlogistic growthper capita growtha.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 172. Use the following information to answer the next question.While studying a population of rats in a colony, a student recorded the change in the number of rats year by year. He found that after a few years the population size of the rats became constant. The student mentioned in his report that the rat population was showinga.exponential growthc.logistic growthb.abnormal growthd.per capita growth____ 173. Use the following information to answer the next question.A park supported many varieties of species for a number of years before it reached its carrying capacity and the birth rate of all populations became equal to their death rates. One can conlcude that the populations supported by the park are growinga.exponentiallyc.linearlyb.per capitallyd.logistically____ 174. Which of the following statements about the stationary phase is correct?a.The birth rate equals the emigration rate.b.The death rate equals the immigration rate.c.The birth rate equals the death rate.d.The emigration rate equals the immigration rate.____ 175. A population is the total number ofa.species that live in an areab.different types of animals that live in an areac.different types of plants that live in an aread.organisms of the same species that live in an area____ 176. Population ecologists use various parameters to describe a population quantitatively. Which of the following formulae are used to determine the population density of an area?a.Population Density = b.Population Density = c.Population Density =d.Population Density =____ 177. The space in which a population lives is measured in different ways depending on the habitat. Space of an aquatic habitat is measured in ___i___ units while space of a terrestrial habitat is measured in ___ii___ units. The statement given above is completed by the information in row______.RowiiiAsquarecubicBsquaresquareCcubiccubicDcubic squarea.Ac.Cb.Bd.D____ 178. The maximum size of a population in an environment depends upon the resources present in the area. The maximum number of individuals a habitat can support is known itsa.growth ratec.population densityb.carrying capacityd.population distribution____ 179. Use the following graph to answer the next question.The growth curve of population of single-celled organisms in a culture medium is shown in the graph. Which of the following numbers represents the lag phase of population growth?a.1c.3b.2d.4____ 180. Use the following graph to answer the next question.Which of the following numbers in the growth curve represents the point at which the population has reached the carrying capacity of its habitat?a.1c.3b.2d.4____ 181. Life strategies of various populations can be represented by the symbols r and K. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an r-selected population?a.Its growth rate is unpredictable.b.The organisms have a short life span.c.It rarely exceeds the carrying capacity of its environment.d.The death rate of the population is very high.____ 182. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a K-selected population?a.The maturation time of the young is long.b.The lifespan of the organisms is long.c.There are few offspring per reproductive cycle.d.There is little parental care.____ 183. The Hardy-Weinberg equation is represented as p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1. In this equation, the symbol p stands for the frequency of thea.homozygous dominant genotypec.recessive alleleb.homozygous recessive genotyped.dominant allele____ 184. Which of the following population histograms represents a population with a very rapidly increasing birth rate?a.ic.iiib.iid.iv____ 185. Which of the following population histograms represents a population with low natality and mortality?a.ic.iiib.iid.iv____ 186. Which of the following population histograms represents a population whose numbers are declining?a.ic.iiib.iid.iv____ 187. Changes in gene frequency due to chance events in a small isolated population is calleda.random matingc.gene flowb.genetic driftd.heterozygote advantage____ 188. Gene flow increases genetic diversity in a population and occurs as a result ofa.migrationc.nonrandom matingb.speciationd.genetic drift____ 189. When population density reaches the carrying capacity of the environment, the death rate in the population becomesa.less than the birth ratec.more than the emigration rateb.equal to the birth rated.more than the immigration rate____ 190. One type of genetic drift occurs when starvation, disease or predation quickly reduces a population to a very small size. This results in the loss of genetic diversity, which is known asa.the bottleneck effectc.gene flowb.the founder effectd.speciation____ 191. The gene for red-green colour blindness is located on the X chromosome. Based on this information, which statement is correct?a.A carrier mother cannot pass the gene to her daughter. b.A carrier mother cannot pass the gene to her son.c.A colour-blind father cannot pass the gene to his daughter. d.A colour-blind father cannot pass the gene to his son. ____ 192. The following data were collected by analyzing DNA from animal tissue samples. Identify which samples likely came from animals of the same species.SampleATGC134331716233341617321212929439371014a.samples 1 and 4 c.samples 1 and 2 b.samples 2 and 3 d.samples 3 and 4 ____ 193. In pea plants, inflated pods (R) are dominant to constricted pods (r). Which of the following crosses will result in 50% of the offspring with constricted pods and 50% with inflated pods? a.RR ´ rr c.Rr ´ Rrb.RR ´ Rrd.Rr ´ rr ____ 194. Analyze the pedigree below.Suppose that individual III-2 marries someone with the same genotype as individual I-1. What is the chance that one of their children will have hemophilia? a.0%c.50%b.12.5%d.100%____ 195. A child is diagnosed with a rare genetic disease. Neither parent has the disease. How might the child have inherited the disorder?a.The disorder is dominant and carried by a parent.b.The disorder is recessive and carried by both parents.c.The disorder is X-linked and inherited only from the father.d.The disorder occurred as a mutation in the child because neither parent has the disease. ____ 196. In what type of environment do populations show logistic growth?a.limited environmentc.open ecosystemb.unlimited environmentd.all of the above____ 197. A graph of human population growth is most similar to _____.a.population growth in the absence of limiting factorsb.a population growth curvec.a population growth rate curved.growth of a population of insects in temperate zones____ 198. Which of the following has been most important in contributing to growth of the human population?a.increase in birthratec.increase in death rateb.decrease in birthrated.decrease in death rate____ 199. Zero population growth can be reached only if the _____.a.birthrate is reduced to zerob.birthrate and death rate are equal for a long period of timec.death rate becomes much greaterd.population becomes subject to density-dependent limiting factors____ 200. Each of the following is characteristic of a climax community except _____.a.large plants with long life cyclesc.simple food chainsb.steady population sizesd.diversity of speciesNumeric Response 201. Use the following information to answer the next question.Here are some descriptions and symbols that provide genetic information about a pea plant.1. different form of each gene2. RR, Rr, rr3. Tt ´ tt4. white flower colourMatch the description above with each item below.Genotype _____Phenotype_____Allele_____Monohybrid cross_____ 202. Use the following information to answer the next question. Four different phases that occur during the mitotic phase of cell cycle are as follows:1. prophase 2. telophase3. anaphase4. metaphaseThe correct order in which phases of the mitotic division occur after G2 phase is __________, _____________, ___________ and ___________. 203. If a sample of a child’s DNA is compared with a sample from his father, what would be the expected percent of matching fragments in the two samples? 204. What is the correct sequence for the procedure of gel electrophoresis?1. DNA polymerase is added to the mixture, as well as a solution of bases and a solution that contains a small amount of dideoxynucleotide bases.2. As DNA polymerase copies the DNA molecules, it occasionally adds a dideoxynucleotide to the growing chain, causing the chain to terminate.3. A segment of DNA is heated to separate the strands. 4. Single-stranded DNA is mixed with a known primer sequence to initiate chain elongation. 205. In mice, the gene N is responsible for producing fur. Its recessive allele (n) is lethal in the homozygous condition. The heterozygous condition results in no fur production, or nude mice. Suppose that two nude mice mate. What are the phenotypes and ratios of the offspring? Use a Punnett square to calculate your answer. ___ mouse with fur: ___ nude mice: ___ dead mouse 206. Analyze the data in the graph.How much DNA is in the cell at 28 hours?_____ pg 207. Use th

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