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Title: An 80-year-old is brought to the clinic by his wife. He has a history of peripheral vascular disease ... Post by: Stud_muffin on Jan 20, 2018 An 80-year-old is brought to the clinic by his wife. He has a history of peripheral vascular disease and type 2 diabetes.
The wife states that he has not seemed himself for the preceding few days, noting that he has been lethargic and mildly confused at times and has been incontinent of urine. She reports that his blood glucose levels have been elevated. What is the most likely explanation for the client's change in mental status? A) Depression related to declining health B) Dementia related to advancing age C) Delirium related to underlying medical problem D) Transient ischemic attacks related to vascular disease and diabetes Title: An 80-year-old is brought to the clinic by his wife. He has a history of peripheral vascular disease ... Post by: EYOUNG115 on Jan 20, 2018 Content hidden
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