Biology Forums - Study Force

So I read an old article where a man was said to have killed a 14 year old by poking holes into the skin 50 times, then suctioning the blood until he died from blood loss. The medical report said there was no coagulation of blood in the wounds. Why didn't the blood clot up in any of the wounds? I found that odd, it wasn't mentioned he was hemophilliac or anything. How can a few awl wounds and a bit of suction kill anybody? The medical examiner said the wounds themselves should not have been sufficient to cause fatal blood loss

He might have had hemophilia. Hemophilia is a rare bleeding disorder in which the blood doesn't clot normally.

There was a similar case where this happened to a girl. She was put to sleep with a drink. She woke up to find red spots on her upper arm, navel, and thigh. It said in the middle of these blood red spots was a small opening in the middle. Obviously her blood did clot, but not before she felt so weak she could barely walk to get out of there.

So could it be that both examples were hemophilic?

I don't know, hemophillia was never mentioned. I am not sure if they would have normally survived even if they were not hemophilliac.

Where did you read this, mind if I had a read?

The first one.. the murder of Andrei Yuschinsky, 1911.

There's really no mention of his medical history. People were more interested in the political outcome is sparked, i.e. the international criticism of the antisemitic policies of the Russian Empire.

Assuming they weren't hemophilliacs what would have happened?

Apart from the fact that it fits the profile perfectly, I can't think of anything else. I suppose you could research bleeding disorders. A quick search showed Von Willebrands disease, which is similar to hemophilia and is caused by a deficiency of a blood clotting protein called Von Willebrand factor. Von Willebrand factor circulates attached to factor VIII and is necessary to form a clot.