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Which of the following statements is NOT true about the brain?
 
  A) The brain is capable of change.
  B) Thoughts, feelings, and actions determine the health of our brain.
  C) Over time the brain loses the power to change itself on the basis of experience.
  D) None of these

Q. 2

fMRI is a __________________.
 
  A) brain imaging technique
  B) technique to reduce brain tumors
  C) telesensor used to count brain cells
  D) functional stereotaxic apparatus

Q. 3

Which of the following is TRUE regarding stress?
 
  A) We need some stress for learning.
  B) Stress management is an important part of counseling.
  C) Therapeutic lifestyle changes can ameliorate stress.
  D) All of these

Q. 4

Stressful events can:
 
  A) leave a trail of happy emotions.
  B) leave a relaxed sensation.
  C) leave a marked imprint on your brain.
  D) All of these

Q. 5

Approximately what percentage of medical issues involve the brain and stress?
 
  A) 90
  B) 80
  C) 70
  D) 60

Q. 6

Gender, sexual orientation, age, geographic location, physical ability, religion/spirituality, and socioeconomic status:
 
  A) are diversification factors only.
  B) must be included with race and ethnicity as multicultural factors.
  C) are never included in multicultural factors.
  D) may or may not be included depending on the counselor's personal preference.
The following book lists occupations and compares the number of jobs expected in the future and the number of workers qualified to fill the positions.
 
  a. Career Handbook
  b. Job Seeker
  c. Occupational Outlook Handbook
  d. Career Finder
  e. Dictionary of Occupational Titles

Q. 2

Shelly is a career counseling client who has been working with her counselor for several sessions. Shelly has explored her own abilities, skills, and other personality characteristics. Shellys next step according to the trait-factor approach is to _____________________________ __.
 
  a. engage in job interviews for likely positions
  b. shadow professionals in the two most appealing jobs
  c. complete applications for at least two possible positions
  d. examine job factors that will match her personal characteristics
  e. complete a professional resume

Q. 3

The following person has been called the father of vocational counseling. He proposed choosing an occupation required matching personality characteristics with job features and determining the fit through true reasoning. The persons name is:_____________ and his counseling approach is called:___________.
 
  a. Donald Super; career development
  b. John Holland; person/environment fit
  c. Frank Parsons; trait factor
  d. Carl Rogers; client centered
  e. Jesse Jackson; rainbow coalition

Q. 4

As manufacturing factories dominated the job market, work roles required compliance with the structure of the company. This historical societal change was called:
 
  a. Industrialization
  b. Reformation
  c. Education
  d. Individualization
  e. Socialization

Q. 5

In colonial times, self-employed farmers, craftsmen, laborers, and small business owners were primarily influenced by the _______________________.
 
  a. federal government
  b. aristocratic temperament
  c. entrepreneurs
  d. Protestant work ethic
  e. industrial revolution

Q. 6

Career counseling facilitates all of the following EXCEPT ____________________.
 
  a. technological savvy
  b. integration of information
  c. a realistic view of the world of work
  d. self-awareness
  e. career identity development

Q. 7

Professional counselors know the ________________________ of trusting assessment tools over and above the clients own internal evaluation.
 
  a. importance
  b. fallacy
  c. utility
  d. primacy
  e. nuances

Q. 8

The clients expectation for test and tell and the limits of the counselors training can set the stage for the client and the career counselor to depend on a limited, ______________ approach.
 
  a. postmodern
  b. humanistic
  c. structured
  d. group
  e. philosophical
The first part of the career diamond starting at point A and moving toward the middle, or peak, is called the ___________________.
 
  a. exploring phase
  b. awareness phase
  c. Integration phase
  d. critical phase
  e. Action Phase

Q. 2

The ____________________ is the factor in the career diamond that includes all of the external aspects that must be taken into account when making career decisions.
 
  a. decision
  b. self
  c. system
  d. vision
  e. world of work

Q. 3

In the career diamond, the dimension of the ___________________ is placed along the top lines of the diamond and indicates the primary task related to career development.
 
  a. self
  b. world of work
  c. ego
  d. training
  e. vision

Q. 4

Supers rainbow and arch, career genograms, and the career diamond are easily recognizable and represent what are commonly referred to as _________________ models.
 
  a. super
  b. pictorial
  c. empirical
  d. scale
  e. full-scale

Q. 5

The career diamond is a visual attempt to bring a visceral sense of the experience of a career change. For example, the narrowing of the diamond represents the limiting of occupations that are considered and occurs primarily during the _______________________.
 
  a. critical phase
  b. exploring phase
  c. integration phase
  d. open phase

Q. 6

During the integration phase, applying ________________________ is the ideal way to limit occupations for further investigation.
 
  a. specific traits
  b. general characteristics
  c. personal values/interests
  d. external realities

Q. 7

Sally enjoys journaling and has taking some personality tests in the past. She is able to quickly describe personal likes and dislikes as well as having a personal picture of the self in the future. Career knowledge is limited to parents occupations and TV characters. Her placement on the Career Diamond is:
 
  a. close to the peak on the self; close to awareness on world-of-work
  b. close to awareness on the self; close to the peak on world-of-work
  c. close to the peak on the self; close to choice on world-of-work
  d. close to choice on the self; close to the peak on world-of-work

Q. 8

The diamond identifies both ______________________ and awareness of internal factors as necessary for vocational decisions.
 
  a. understanding
  b. external realities
  c. education
  d. self-exploration
The employees at lower levels may NOT experience the impact of change brought about by:
 a. acquisitions and mergers.
 b. downsizing.
 c. rightsizing.
 d. restructure through growth.

Q. 2

Downsizing or rightsizing is:
 a. a change in hierarchy.
 b. frequently seen as a negative change.
 c. not a reason for resistance to change.
 d. a solution to a larger problem.

Q. 3

Which of the following is NOT a type of change that organizations face?
 a. Change in structure.
 b. Change in work processes.
 c. Change in the culture of the organization.
 d. Change in focus.

Q. 4

Difficult or complex change must be carried out by managers who have all but which of the following?
 a. the stamina
 b. the will
 c. the initiative
 d. the authority

Q. 5

It is easier for employees to accept change if:
 a. they understand the real agenda.
 b. they trust their managers.
 c. the transition is gradual.
 d. their opinions are voiced.

Q. 6

What is key in preventing employees from misunderstanding or not agreeing with the rationale for change?
 a. empowerment
 b. repercussions
 c. unity
 d. education

Q. 7

Changes made in the dietetics profession regarding the way sick people are fed:
 a. have devalued the dietetics services.
 b. exclude extensive nutrition services from the room rate.
 c. include providing services only with a physician's order.
 d. no longer view food as a fundamental right.
The creation of a comprehension nutrition plan that matches the demands imposed by training is known as _____.
 Fill in the blank(s) with correct word

Q. 2

When marathon runners speak of hitting the wall they are referring to their inability to finish the race due to _____.
 Fill in the blank(s) with correct word

Q. 3

MyPyramid materials are public domain documents, which means that they can be _____.
 Fill in the blank(s) with correct word

Q. 4

Some of the most popular herbal dietary supplements sold in the U.S. are purchased by consumers for the purpose of preventing or treating disease.
  Indicate whether the statement is true or false

Q. 5

It is estimated that training has a far greater impact on improving performance than any legal dietary supplement is likely to have.
  Indicate whether the statement is true or false

Q. 6

When used as part of an appropriate plan to increase muscle size and strength, protein supplements are no better or worse than food proteins.
  Indicate whether the statement is true or false
The condition characterized by inconsolable crying by an infant, often for long periods of time, is called colic.
 
  Indicate whether the statement is true or false

Q. 2

Approximately how long does it take for liver glycogen stores to be depleted?
 
  A) 18 hours B) 4 hours C) 12 hours D) 8 hours

Q. 3

Children who do not reach the appropriate milestones may eventually develop a condition called failure to thrive.
 
  Indicate whether the statement is true or false

Q. 4

When does glycogenesis occur?
 
  A) during an emergency, when glycogen is broken down to release glucose
  B) when a person is fasting and glucose is generated from noncarbohydrate sources
  C) when there is excess glucose in the blood
  D) when a person's blood glucose level dips too low

Q. 5

Which of the following hormones is both released when the stomach is distended and triggers the feeling of satiation?
 
  A) glucagon B) leptin C) insulin D) cholecystokinin

Q. 6

Which of the following hormones is produced in fat tissue and helps regulate body fat by signaling the brain to reduce food intake?
 
  A) leptin B) thyroid hormone C) ghrelin D) cholecystokinin

Q. 7

What is the source of glucose to supply the energy needs in a person who has not eaten for seven hours?
 
  A) muscle protein B) the brain C) liver glycogen D) stored fat

Q. 8

Which of the following statements regarding diabetes in children is true?
 
  A) Obesity is not a risk factor for diabetes in children.
  B) The last few decades have shown a steady decrease of diabetes among those under the age of 20.
  C) Children with diabetes have fewer medical complications from the disease because they are able to adapt to the changes in glucose metabolism.
  D) Type 1 is not the only type of diabetes seen in children.
Which of the following foods is most likely to promote dental caries?
 
  A) chewing gum with xylitol B) carrots
  C) cheese D) raisins

Q. 2

List at least four benefits of daily exercise during pregnancy.
 
  What will be an ideal response?

Q. 3

Which foods should pregnant women avoid?
 
  What will be an ideal response?

Q. 4

Which of the following is not the name of a sugar?
 
  A) high-fructose corn syrup B) dextrose
  C) lignin D) malt syrup

Q. 5

Which of the following types of surgery involves stapling the majority of the stomach shut?
 
  A) hernia surgery B) gastric banding
  C) liposuction D) gastric bypass surgery

Q. 6

List the nutrient deficiencies for which pregnant vegan women are at particular risk.
 
  What will be an ideal response?

Q. 7

Binge eating disorder involves
 
  A) side effects such as scar tissue on the knuckles. B) recurrent episodes of bingeing without purging.
  C) abuse of diet pills. D) abuse of laxatives.

Q. 8

If poorly managed, diabetes can increase the likelihood of all of the following outcomes except
 
  A) amputations of limbs. B) kidney disease.
  C) eye diseases. D) breast cancer.
Which of the following substances is sometimes taken to reduce hot flashes?
 
  A) Echinacea B) garlic C) fish oil D) black cohosh

Q. 2

Being overweight puts a person at higher risk for developing type 2 diabetes, the most common type of diabetes.
 
  Indicate whether the statement is true or false

Q. 3

Binge eating disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of bingeing and purging.
 
  Indicate whether the statement is true or false

Q. 4

Which of the following substances is sometimes taken to lower blood pressure?
 
  A) garlic B) black cohosh C) fish oil D) Echinacea

Q. 5

Which of the following substances is sometimes taken to reduce depression?
 
  A) Echinacea B) black cohosh C) St. John's wort D) garlic

Q. 6

Abnormal and potentially harmful eating behaviors that do not meet the specific criteria for an eating disorder are categorized as disordered eating.
 
  Indicate whether the statement is true or false

Q. 7

All the nutrients and phytochemicals lost in the processing of wheat flour are added back in the enrichment process.
 
  Indicate whether the statement is true or false
The measure of how much nitrogen is retained in the body for maintenance and growth rather than absorbed is the ____.
 A) protein efficiency ratio
  B) biological value
  C) net protein utilization
  D) Tolerable Upper Intake Level

Q. 2

What is the current Tolerable Upper Intake Level established for protein and amino acids?
 A) ingestion of a diet supplying > 30 energy from protein
  B) two times the RDA
  C) 42 mg/kg/day
  D) no Tolerable Upper Intake Level has been established

Q. 3

When evaluating protein quality, which of the following measures represents the gain in body weight on a test protein divided by the grams of protein consumed?
 A) chemical score
  B) BV (biological value)
  C) PER (protein efficiency ratio)
  D) NPU (net protein utilization)

Q. 4

What is one of the more common ways to evaluate protein quality in a food that does not involve nitrogen balance studies?
 A) chemical score
  B) net dietary protein calories percentage
  C) biological value
  D) net protein utilization

Q. 5

Legumes are limited in sulfur-containing amino acids, methionine and cysteine. What food group is considered complementary because it supplies these amino acids?
 A) fruits
  B) nuts
  C) grains
  D) starchy vegetables

Q. 6

What two major systems are used for protein degradation in most cells?
 A) mitochondrial and cytosolic
  B) u-calpain and m-calpain
  C) GTP-requiring and GTP-independent
  D) lysosomal and ubiquitin-proteosomal

Q. 7

What percentage of resting energy expenditure is attributed to protein synthesis and degradation?
 A) 9
  B) 10-25
  C) 30-40
  D) 45-55

Q. 8

Which amino acid, when oxidized, spares the essential gluconeogenic precursors pyruvate and lactate?
 A) cysteine
  B) alanine
  C) leucine
  D) glutamine

Q. 9

A genetic defect diminishing branched-chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase (BCKAD) complex activity results in ____.
 A) phenylketonuria
  B) homocystinuria
  C) cystathioninuria
  D) maple syrup urine disease
Which description best defines the body's set point?
 A) the minimum weight of a person
  B) the maximum weight of a person
  C) the point at which a person's weight plateaus before dropping again quickly
  D) the point above which the body tends to lose weight and below which it tends to gain weight

Q. 2

Individuals with ____ are gluten-sensitive but react to gluten by developing a severe, itchy rash and have few GI symptoms.
 A) dermatitis herpetiformis
  B) cutaneous celiac disease
  C) dermal dystrophy
  D) gluten dermatitis

Q. 3

What best describes the results of an increase in LPL activity?
 A) Fat storage becomes more efficient.
  B) The cells are less likely to obtain energy from glucose.
  C) The liver increases production of triglycerides.
  D) The rate of weight loss is increased.

Q. 4

What is a potential nutritional consequence following resection of the ileum?
 A) sodium malabsorption
  B) reduced calcium and zinc absorption
  C) lactose malabsorption
  D) reduced potassium and phosphorus absorption

Q. 5

What is a characteristic of the lipoprotein lipase enzyme?
 A) In men, the enzyme activity is high in abdominal fat cells.
  B) Obese people who lose weight show markedly higher enzyme activity.
  C) Obese people have less enzyme activity in their adipocytes than lean people do.
  D) In women, the enzyme activity is low in fat cells within the breasts, hips, and thighs.

Q. 6

What is the malabsorption syndrome that results after surgery when the absorptive capacity of the remaining intestine is insufficient for meeting nutritional needs?
 A) celiac disease
  B) short bowel syndrome
  C) irritable bowel syndrome
  D) inflammatory bowel disease

Q. 7

Tom was overweight when he was 13. During puberty, he continued to gain weight steadily until the age of 23, when he decided to lose weight. Tom successfully lost 50 pounds. What most likely happened to Tom's fat cells?
 A) They shrank in size but did not decrease in number.
  B) They melted away when he burned all the excess fat.
  C) They decreased in number but did not decrease in size.
  D) They changed very little since fat cells shrink only with a weight loss greater than 100 pounds.
Which of the following types of data might indicate the presence of inflammation or anemia?
 a. Admission data b. Anthropometric data
  c. Functional assessment data d. Laboratory test results

Q. 2

Which of the following contains the least amount of fiber?
 a. Apples b. Prunes
  c. Potatoes d. White rice

Q. 3

Which of the following is a common treatment for pernicious anemia caused by inadequate absorption?
 a. Injection of cobalamin
  b. Topical administration of liver extract
  c. Oral supplements of B-vitamin complex
  d. A diet high in liver and green, leafy vegetables

Q. 4

A patient's ability to feed herself represents which type of data?
 a. Admission data b. Anthropometric data
  c. Functional assessment data d. Laboratory test results

Q. 5

Which of the following are NOT water-soluble fibers?
 a. Gums b. Pectins
  c. Lignins d. Mucilages

Q. 6

Which of the following is a property of vitamin B12?
 a. It is efficiently recycled by the body
  b. It is necessary for protection from pinpoint hemorrhages
  c. It requires attachment to fatty acids for transport in the circulation
  d. It is absorbed from the stomach with the aid of a special binding protein
Clinical trials have shown that approximately _____ gram(s) of plant sterols per day can lower LDL cholesterol by up to 15 percent.
 a. one b. two
  c. three d. four

Q. 2

Martha has been advised to limit trans fats in her diet. Which of the following snack foods would this most likely include?
 a. Chocolate b. Skim milk
  c. French fries d. Pretzels

Q. 3

Mr. Bidwell, age 68, suffered an MI six weeks ago. On his clinic visit he tells you he has been trying to manage his diet. You ask him to describe a typical dinner. Mr. Bidwell probably understands his dietary instructions if he describes a dinner of
 a. baked chicken, macaroni and cheese, green beans, and Jell-O.
  b. shrimp Creole, rice, salad with blue cheese dressing, and sherbet.
  c. turkey, cranberry sauce, steamed vegetables, and angel food cake.
  d. spare ribs, boiled potato, and coleslaw.

Q. 4

Mr. Goldman is a 55-year-old Caucasian who has suffered an MI. His total cholesterol level is 242 mg/dL, LDL is 172 mg/dL, HDL is 35 mg/dL, and triglycerides are 400 mg/dL. Which statement by Mr. Goldman suggests some accurate recall of dietary instructions for lowering his cholesterol?
 a. I should drink a glass of wine every day to raise my HDL cholesterol.
  b. I'm supposed to eat 300 mg of cholesterol/day.
  c. I must eliminate red meat from my diet.
  d. Avoidance of saturated fat is a primary concern.

Q. 5

_____ dietary fat is shown to have the strongest effect on blood cholesterol levels and TLC's recommendation is that it contribute less than _____ percent of total kcalories.
 a. Polyunsaturated; 10 b. Saturated; 7
  c. Saturated; 10 d. Monounsaturated; 7

Q. 6

For what length of time should a person with a high risk of CHD try to lower LDL cholesterol with a trial of Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes (TLC) before considering drug therapy?
 a. 2 weeks b. 4 weeks
  c. 2 months d. 3 months

Q. 7

Medications used to reduce LDL levels include
 a. aspirin. b. antihypertensives.
  c. statins. d. diuretics.

Q. 8

Which of the following is one of the classic risk factors for CHD?
 a. cigarette smoking b. family history of CHD
  c. sedentary lifestyle d. poor diet.

Q. 9

About _____ of people with CHD have at least one of the classic risk factors for CHD.
 a. 60 b. 70
  c. 80 d. 90

Q. 10

Which of the following is a CHD risk equivalent, which carries the same risk for a major coronary event as established CHD?
 a. Type 2 diabetes b. Cigarette smoking
  c. Elevated LDL and VLDL d. Low VLDL
In the double-blind placebo-controlled food challenge:
  1.only the care provider knows whether a suspected food is being tested.
  2.the patient and the care provider know whether a suspected food is being tested.
  3.the patient knows whether a suspected food or placebo is being tested.
  4.neither the patient nor the care provider knows whether a suspected food or placebo is being tested.

Q. 2

The gold standard for diagnosing food allergies is called the:
  1.placebo-controlled food challenge.
  2.experimental food challenge.
  3.blind-placebo-controlled food challenge.
  4.double-blind placebo-controlled food challenge.

Q. 3

A disease characterized by inflammation of the small intestine lining resulting from a genetically based intolerance to gluten is called:
  1.gluten allergy.
  2.celiac disease.
  3.Crohns disease.
  4.irritable bowl syndrome.

Q. 4

All of the following are symptoms of anaphylactic shock EXCEPT:
  1.strong and fast pulse.
  2.paleness.
  3.flush discoloration of lips and fingertips.
  4.difficulty breathing.

Q. 5

A reduction in blood supply to the heart and other tissues due to the bodys reaction to a substance in food is called:
  1.lactose intolerance.
  2.food intolerance.
  3.histamine shock.
  4.anaphylactic shock.

Q. 6

All of the following describe actions that histamine produces EXCEPT:
  1.a rise in blood pressure.
  2.a drop in blood pressure.
  3.hives and itching.
  4.dilation of blood vessels.

Q. 7

A substance released in allergic reactions that causes itching and hives is called:
  1.antihistamine.
  2.histamine.
  3.beta blocker.
  4.allergen.

Q. 8

Another term used to describe a food allergy is:
  1.food concern.
  2.food hypersensitivity.
  3.food intolerance.
  4.food reaction.
Sharon is an 18-year-old college student who drinks soda at lunch, at dinner, and with snacks. You notice that she rarely drinks milk and suggest that she start because the calcium recommendation for someone 9-18 years of age is ____.
 a. 500 mg per day
 b. 800 mg per day
 c. 1,000 mg per day
  d. 1,300 mg per day
  e. 1,600 mg per day.

Q. 2

The ________________ is responsible for the sense of taste and includes the tongue and several areas of the brain, most notably the cortex and hypothalamus.
 a. Olfactory system
  b. Gustatory System
  c. Limbic System
  d. All of the above

Q. 3

A cup of milk contains approximately ____ milligrams of calcium.
 a. 100
 b. 300
 c. 500
 d. 750
 e. 1,000

Q. 4

A group of brain structures collectively known as ____________ integrate sensory information and transmit this information to other parts of the brain, including the hypothalamus. It exists outside the blood-brain barrier.
 a. Circumventricular organs
  b. the Limbic System
  c. the Gustatory System
  d. the Olfactory System

Q. 5

Jim is trying to eat foods with less sodium in hopes that his blood pressure will decrease to a healthy measurement. Which food should he avoid?
 a. grilled chicken
  b. pickles
 c. bananas
 d. sweet potatoes
  e. honey

Q. 6

__________________ turns off eating, and in some cases increases energy expenditures.
 a. Catecholamines
  b. Dynorphin
  c. Norepinephrine
  d. All of the above

Q. 7

A diet which overemphasizes ____ is likely to lead to an iron deficiency in children.
 a. cereals
 b. milk
 c. vegetables
 d. dried beans
  e. meat

Q. 8

_____________ stimulates eating particularly by increasing the size of a meal and increasing the intake of carbohydrates.
 a. Peptide YY
  b. Dynorphin
  c. Galanin
  d. Norepinephrine

Q. 9

The most reliable source of fluoride is ____.
 a. meats and whole-grain cereals
  b. iodized salt
 c. dark green vegetables
 d. public water
 e. milk and milk products

Q. 10

The opioid peptide, __________________, promotes eating and has pain-reducing properties. This morphine-like substance acts on the feeding centers of the hypothalamus to stimulate the consumption of highly palatable foods, such as fats. It may also play some role in stress-induced eating.
 a. Neuropeptide Y
  b. Peptide YY
  c. Dynorphin
  d. Galanin
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