Answers are attached A. Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best possible answer. Use the bubble sheet. (1 pt. each)
1. All of the following are processes that promote new genetic combinations except:
(A) natural selection (B) independent assortment (C) crossing over (D) mitosis (E) random fertilization
2. Which of the following is true about speciation on island archipelagos?
(A) Species clusters are less common (B) Speciation by polyploidy is most common (C) Ecological competition may cause new species to go extinct slowing speciation (D) Most speciation occurs allopatrically (E) Speciation is slow because it depends on emigration from the mainland
3. Which of the following does not illustrate shared ancestry by anatomical comparison studies?
(A) structures found to be homologous (B) structure loses its function altogether (C) different structures evolve in similar ways when subjected to the same selective pressures (D) structure becomes vestigial (E) same structure has evolved to carry out different function
4. Children born in areas where proper nutrition is not available to them do not always realize their full growth potential. These children have the genes for normal growth of bones. Which of the following statements can best explain this situation?
(A) Since nutrition is necessary for proper development and is a part of the environment, it is a clear case of environmental effect on the genotype. (B) The children's parents did not obtain the proper nutrients when they were young and thus were not able to pass on the alleles for normal growth and development.
(C) There will always be examples that reflect this condition in human populations because of the continuous variation that exists for this characteristic. (D) There is a lack of dominance in the alleles for normal bone growth; as a result, the genotype is directly affected. (E) Since nutrition is necessary for proper development and is a part of the environment, it is a clear case of environmental effect on the phenotype.
5. The zygote has:
(A) one full haploid complement of chromosomes. (B) chromosomes identical to those of a sperm cell. (C) one copy of each chromosome. (D) two copies of each chromosome. (E) chromosomes identical to those of an egg cell.
6. DNA, RNA, and ATP contain functional units known as:
(A) enzymes. (B) fatty acids. (C) peptides. (D) amino acids. (E) nucleotides.
7. Lipids are the only class of macromolecules that contain
(A) phosphate groups (B) amino acids (C) sugars (D) nucleic acids (E) fatty acids
8. The model that assumes that evolution proceeds with slow successive change in a given evolutionary line is referred to as: (A) gradualism. (B) punctuated equilibrium. (C) successive descent model. (D) the sympatric model. (E) the allopatric model.
9. The nitrogen base not found in DNA is called:
(A) guanine. (B) uracil. (C) thymine. (D) cytosine. (E) adenine.
10. Chromosomes exchange genetic information by
(A) syngamy. (B) fertilization. (C) crossing over. (D) mitosis. (E) DNA replication.
11. Which one of the following is not an example of a reproductive isolating mechanism?
(A) behavioral isolation (B) sympatric isolation (C) ecological isolation (D) mechanical isolation
(E) temporal isolation
12. The fitness of an individual may depend on all of the following factors except
(A) life span of the individual. (B) climate change. (C) offspring produced per mating.
(D) frequency of individual's phenotype in population. (E) presence of many pleiotropic genes.
13. If you were to design a long-term research study to determine why there are no human births in Lapland during the months of August, September, and October, you would need to also examine a comparison population of humans in which births took place every month. The primary reason for including a comparison population within the design of this experiment would be to:
(A) test the effects of more than one variable at the same time. (B) prove that there are no births in Lapland during August, September, and October. (C) accumulate more facts that could be reported to other scientists. (D) act as a control that would ensure that the results obtained are due to a difference in only one variable.
14. Due to character displacement, two closely related species may differ most morphologically when they
(A) occupy the same niche. (B) occupy different niches. (C) share a common ancestor. (D) are allopatric.
(E) are sympatric.
15. Let Y = yellow and y = green, and R = round and r = wrinkled. You cross YYRR peas with yyrr peas. All of the F1 individuals are yellow and round with a genotype of YyRr. You then perform a F2 cross and get the expected 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio. Which of the following is the correct genotypic ratio for yellow, round F2 individuals?
(A) 1/16 YyRr, 2/16 YYRr, 2/16 YyRR, 4/16 YYRR
(B) 1/16 YYRR, 2/16 YYRr, 2/16 YyRR, 4/16 YyRr
(C) 1/16 YYRR, 1/16 YYRr, 1/16 YyRR
(D) 1/16 YYRr, 2/16 YYRR, 2/16 YyRR, 4/16 YyRr
16. Which of the following tissues transport water and dissolved minerals upward from the roots?
(A) vascular cambium (B) cork cambium (C) phloem (D) xylem (E) cortex
17. Livestock owners and breeders have most likely maximized their abilities to greatly improve size and speed of the animals that they raise. This is a consequence of :
(A) existing genetic combinations have been nearly exhausted as well as the limited amount of genetic variability that existed to begin with. (B) using artificial insemination instead of allowing animals to breed on their own. (C) not enough crossing over events in previous livestock generations.
(D) too many crossing over events in previous livestock generations.
18. Let P = purple flowers and p = white, and T = tall plants and t = dwarf. What combinations of gametes could be produced by a heterozygote for both the traits?
(A) P, p, T, t (B) infertile, no gametes produced (C) PpTt only (D) Pp, Tt (E) PT, Pt, pT, pt
19. The evolution of similar forms in different lineages when exposed to the same selective pressures is
(A) also known as natural selection. (B) referred to as successive homologies. (C) referred to as descent.
(D) called convergence. (E) called divergence.
20. Structures that are derived from the same body part in a common ancestor but may have different appearances and functions are called:
(A) analogous structures. (B) homozygous structures. (C) embryonic structures. (D) homologous structures. (E) vestigial structures.
21. In one of the first steps in meiosis, the:
(A) homologous pairs of chromosomes pair up along their length. (B) chromatids separate and move to opposite ends of the cell. (C) half chromosomes are made inactive. (D) chromosomes become invisible.
(E) clearly defined spindle apparatus appears in the center of the cell.
22. In some instances environmental change causes a situation where one phenotype is favored for a period of time, and then a different phenotype is favored. This oscillating selection causes:
(A) extinction of the population. (B) the maintenance of genetic variation in the population. (C) high population increase to maintain phenotypic variation. (D) an increase in point mutations. (E) elimination of rarer genotypes because of uneven selection.
23. Which of the following is an example of convergent evolution?
(A) all of the species in a genus of placental mammals (B) homologous organs of apes and humans
(C) Australian marsupials and placental mammals of other continents (D) analogous organs of horses, antelopes, and deer (E) skull bones of vertebrates
24. Meiosis also has been called reduction division because:
(A) there is an initial reduction in the chromosome number during the first division followed by an increase in chromosome number, the second division quickly follows the increase in number of chromosomes.
(B) there is a reduction in the chromosome number during two separate nuclear and cell divisions to produce gametes. (C) new gametes are produced but their numbers are reduced. (D) there is a reduction in the chromosome number during two separate nuclear and cell divisions to produce somatic cells.
(E) new somatic cells are produced but with a reduction in the required amount of time, which promotes faster wound healing.
25. The age of the Earth according to modern estimations is:
(A) a few thousand years. (B) 4.5 billion years. (C) 1.5 billion years. (D) 3.5 billion years. (E) 8 billion years.
26. A type of isolating mechanism that leads to reproductive isolation by preventing the formation of hybrid zygotes is called _____________ isolating mechanism.
(A) adaptive (B) prezygotic (C) hybridization (D) postzygotic (E) differential
27. The recessive phenotype of a trait occurs in 25% of a population. There are no selection pressures affecting this trait. What would be the expected frequency of the dominant allele after six generations of continued non-selection?
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.75 (D) 1.0 (E) none of the above
28. Which of the following statements about viruses is not accurate?
(A) Viruses cannot reproduce on their own. (B) Viruses can be placed in the Archaea Domain of life because of their similarities with these primitive organisms. (C) Viruses can infect organisms at all taxonomic levels. (D) Viruses are fragments of nucleic acids with associated proteins. (E) Viruses can invade cells and produce more copies of themselves.
29. Ovules are produced in the ovary that is located in the swollen lower portion of the:
(A) pistil. (B) anther. (C) filament. (D) stigma. (E) stamen.
30. A biologist is examining reproductive cells at the end of meiosis I. She notices that each of the two resulting cells are haploid. She also knows that meiosis II will produce haploid cells. How can her observations be explained?
(A) The cells that resulted from meiosis I are, in fact, haploid, but her knowledge of the result of meiosis II is not accurate, at least for this particular cell type. (B) The cells that resulted from meiosis I are in fact diploid and this explains her observational error and also her knowledge of the meiosis II resulting in haploid cells. (C) There must be an error and she needs to refocus her microscope and look again.
(D) The cells that resulted from meiosis I are in fact haploid, but are composed of two sister chromatids. The sister chromatids will be pulled apart during meiosis II, producing haploid gametes.
(E) The cells that she observed are abnormal and will require further observations.
31. An organism has just been located and needs to be placed into one of the domains of life. The characteristics that have been reported are multicellular and autotrophic. Based on your knowledge, which domain should this organism be placed?
(A) Archaea (B) Plantae (C) Bacteria (D) Eukarya (E) Bacteria
32. The type of speciation that geographically isolates populations and results in the divergence of distinct species is called ____________ speciation.
(A) sexual (B) gradual (C) allopatric (D) adaptive (E) sympatric
33. Living organisms can be divided into _____ domains.
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) 1
34. In the taxonomic hierarchical system for grouping organisms, the next higher group to a family is
(A) species.(B) phylum.(C) genus.(D) class.(E) order.
35. The production of new species through hybridization is sometimes made easier in plants by
(A) adaptation. (B) meiosis. (C) polyploidy. (D) parthenogenesis. (E) hybrid sterility.
36. A bacteriophage typically attaches to the bacterium and then
(A) converts the bacteria into immortal cells. (B) falls off every time. (C) injects its nucleic acid into it, and then the capsid stays outside. (D) it becomes inactive. (E) viral protein is injected and the viral DNA stays outside.
37. If populations within a common area split into species, the process is known as
(A) allopatric speciation. (B) sympatric speciation. (C) racial speciation. (D) ecotypical speciation.
(E) reproductive speciation.
38. Carbohydrates are polymers formed of structural units called:
(A) fatty acids. (B) nucleic acids. (C) amino acids. (D) monosaccharides. (E) phosphate groups.
39. Sympatric speciation can involve all of the following except
(A) autopolyploidy. (B) allopolyploidy. (C) reproductive isolating mechanisms. (D) two or more populations separated by a geographic barrier. (E) disruptive selection.
40. The "scientific creationism" view includes all of the following beliefs except:
(A) extinct species are replaced with new ones. (B) the earth is much younger than most scientists believe. (C) all species of organisms were individually created. (D) Biblical account of the origin of the earth is literally true. (E) the organisms did not change from their original appearance.
41. Which of the following is not a component of nucleic acids? (A) a six-carbon sugar (B) a five-carbon sugar (C) a phosphate group (D) phosphodiester bonds (E) an organic nitrogen containing base
42. Which of the following statements about disruptive selection is false?
(A) It results in polymorphism. (B) It results in a bimodal distribution of phenotypes within a population.
(C) It selects against individuals with intermediate phenotypes. (D) It involves multi-gene inheritance.
(E) It increases heterozygosity within the population.
43. Schlieden and Schwann stated the "cell theory," which in its modern form includes all of the following postulates except: (A) cells vary in size and shape. (B) cells are the smallest living things. (C) all cells need oxygen. (D) all organisms are composed of one or more cells. (E) cells arise only by division of a previously existing cell.
44. Evidence for evolution can be obtained by examining presently existing species through studies on each of the following except one. Select the exception.
(A) patterns of distribution (B) vestigial structures (C) convergence (D) early development (E) analogous structures
45. Which animal is most likely to be a keystone species? (A) land snail (B) goldfish (C) wolf (D) Galapagos finch.
46. You see a sign on a door that reads "Homologous Structures Inside." You go in and find
(A) structures of animals that appear to have evolved from different parts of their bodies. (B) structures of animals that have difference appearances and functions but seem to have evolved from the same body part in a common ancestor. (C) structures of animals that have different appearances and functions but different ancestors. (D) structures of animals that have the same appearances and functions but obviously no common ancestor.
47. The biological species concept of Ernst Mayr can be applied to all of the following except:
(A) sympatric organisms. (B) eukaryotic organisms. (C) prokaryotic organisms. (D) allopatric organisms.
(E) asexually-reproducing organisms.