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slimeman007 slimeman007
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9 years ago
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____   1.   Use the following information to answer the next question.
 

The diagram shows condensation of chromatids into condensed chromosomes. The phase of cell division is called
a.   prophase   c.   anaphase
b.   metaphase   d.   telophase


____   2.   In humans, the diploid number of chromosomes is 46. How many chromosomes are in human liver cells and eggs, respectively?
a.   23 and 46   c.   46 and 46
b.   23 and 23   d.   46 and 23


____   3.   Human cells have 23 pairs of chromosomes of which 22 are autosomal and homologous. One pair, the sex chromosomes, differ in structure and length, but still are considered homologous pair, due to
a.   same banding pattern   c.   pairing together during meiosis
b.   same type of genes.   d.   same position of centromere


____   4.   How do polyploids differ from haploids?
a.   Haploids have a single set of chromosomes while polyploids have multiple sets of chromosomes.
b.   Haploids have multiple sets of chromosomes while polyploids have a single set of chromosomes.
c.   Haploids have a double set of chromosomes while polyploids have a single set of chromosomes
d.   Haploids have .a single set of chromosomes while polyploids have a double set of chromosomes.


____   5.   A dihybrid cross is one in which two traits with two pairs of genes are studied at once. For example, we cross tall plants with round seeds (TTRR) with dwarf plants and wrinkled seeds. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?
a.   3 : 1   c.   1 : 1
b.   9 : 3 : 3 : 1   d.   12 : 1


____   6.   In a dihybrid cross, a homozygous plant with purple and axial flowers (PPAA) is crossed with a homozygous plant with white and top flowers (ppaa). If the purple flower trait is dominant over white flowers and axial flowers are dominant over top flowers, what phenotypic ratio will be produced in the F1 generation?
a.   purple and axial flowers: white and top flowers – 3: 1
b.   purple and axial: Purple and top: white and axial: white top – 9: 3: 3: 1
c.   all plants with purple and axial flowers – 4: 0
d.   purple and axial flowers: white and top flowers – 1: 1


____   7.   A gene with more than two alleles is said to have multiple alleles. In humans a single gene with multiple alleles determines a person's blood type. If an individual with blood type A mates with a person who has blood type B, what blood type can their offspring have?
a.   AB   c.   A, B, AB and O
b.   A, B and AB   d.   AB and O


____   8.   Use the following information to answer the next question.

A monohybrid cross of two pure forms of red flowers and white flowers in Mirabilis jalapa plant with genotypes R1R1 and R2R2 produced all pink flowers. The F2 generation produced a phenotypic and genotypic ratio of 1: 2: 1.

Which genetic mechanism can account for these results?
a.   dihybrid cross   c.   co-dominance
b.   incomplete dominance   d.   multiple alleles


____   9.   How is incomplete dominance differentiated from co-dominance?
a.   In incomplete dominance, both alleles are fully expressed while in co-dominance neither of the two alleles can completely cancel the presence of the other.
b.   In incomplete dominance, neither of the two alleles can completely conceal the presence of the other while in co-dominance both the alleles are fully expressed.
c.   In incomplete dominance, two alleles are present, while in co-dominance, more than two alleles are present.
d.   In incomplete dominance, more than two alleles are present, while in co-dominance, two alleles are present.


____   10.   Two individual ova fertilized by separate sperm will result in the production of ___i___. A single zygote or blastocyst dividing into two separate bodies will lead to the development of ___ii___. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.

Row   i   ii
A.   Identical twins   Fraternal twins
B.   Identical twins   Identical twins
C.   Fraternal twins   Identical twins
D.   Fraternal twins   Fraternal twins

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   11.   In a diploid cell for which 2n = 20, how many chromosomes will be present in daughter cells after Meiosis I and Meiosis II?
a.   10 and 10   c.   20 and 10
b.   10 and 20   d.   10 and 5


____   12.   At the start of meiosis, a germ mother cell contains the___i___ number of chromosomes. On completion of meiosis the daughter cells will have the___ii___ number of chromosomes. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.

Row   i   ii
A.   Haploid   Diploid
B.   Diploid   Diploid
C.   Diploid   Haploid
D.   Haploid   Haploid

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   13.   Primary spermatocytes are produced from the spermatogonium in ___i___ Sepermatids are produced from secondary spermtocytes in ___ii___. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.

Row   i   ii
A.   Mitosis   Meiosis I
B.   Mitosis   Mitosis
C.   Mitosis   Meiosis II
D.   Meiosis I   Meiosis II

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   14.   If the chromosome number in a sepematogonium is 24, what will be the chromosome number in each sperm after the completion of spermatogenesis?
a.   12   c.   48
b.   24   d.   6


____   15.   During the process of oogensis, oogonium produce primary oocytes which in turn, produce secondary oocytes. The type of cell division associated with each process respectively is:
a.   mitosis I and meiosis I   c.   mitosis and meiosis II
b.   mitosis I and meiosis II   d.   mitosis and meiosis I


____   16.   If ten spore mother cells undergo meiosis and each cell has 20 chromosomes in it, how many spores will be produced and what will be the number of chromosomes in it?
a.   20 spores and 20 chromosomes   c.   40 spore and 20 chromosomes
b.   20 spores and 10 chromosomes   d.   40 spores and 10 chromosomes


____   17.   How many primary spermatocytes and primary oocytes are required to produce 100 sperm and 100 eggs?
a.   25 primary spermatocytes and 25 primary oocytes
b.   100 primary spermatocytes and 100 primary oocytes
c.   25 primary spermatocytes and 100 primary oocytes
d.   100 primary spermatocytes and 25 primary oocytes


____   18.   How many cells are required to produce 1000 cells in a complete mitotic and meiotic division?
a.   250 mitotic and 250 meiotic divisions
b.   500 mitotic and 250 meiotic divisions
c.   999 mitotic divisions and 250 meiotic divisions
d.   999 mitotic and 250 meiotic divisions


____   19.   At which stage of mitosis and meiosis are the linked chromatids separated?
a.   anaphase of mitosis and anaphase of meiosis-I
b.   anaphase of mitosis and anaphase of meiosis-II
c.   metaphase of mitosis and anaphase of meiosis-I
d.   anaphase of mitosis and metaphase of meiosis-II


____   20.   The scientist who contributed the first information about the molecular structure of DNA in the in the twentieth century was:
a.   Levene   c.   Franklin
b.   Chargaff   d.   Watson


____   21.   According to the Chargaff's rule, in a cell the amount of
a.   adenine is approximately equal to the amount of cytosine
b.   adenine is approximately equal to the amount of guanine
c.   adenine is approximately equal to thymine and cytosine is approximately equal to guanine
d.   adenine and thymine is approximately equal to cytosine and guanine


____   22.   From her observations, Francine concluded that ___i___ are located on the inside of the helix, and the ___ii___ are located on the outside, facing towards the watery nucleus of the cell.

Row   i   ii
A.   nitrogenous bases   sugar phosphate backbone
B.   sugar phosphate backbone   nitrogenous bases
C.   nucleotide   sugar phosphate backbone
D.   sugar phosphate backbone   nucleotide

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   23.   The nitrogen bases which have double ring structures are known as purine. Which of the following pairs of nitrogen bases is purine?
a.   Adenine and Cytosine   c.   Adenine and Guanine
b.   Adenine and Thymine   d.   Cytosine and Thymine


____   24.   A sample of DNA contains A and C nucleotides in the following proportion A = 16% and C = 34%. What will be the proportion of G and T nucleotides in this DNA
a.   G = 16% and T = 34%   c.   G = 16% and T = 16%
b.   G = 34% and T = 16%   d.   G = 34% and T = 34%


____   25.   The double helix structure of DNA was proposed by
a.   Levene   c.   Waston and Crick
b.   Chargaff   d.   Escher and Franklin


____   26.   In human DNA, if the percentage of adenine in a cell is 30.9%, what is the expected percentage of guanine?
a.   30%   c.   10%
b.   19%   d.   40%


____   27.   Replication is the process of producing an exact copy of a molecule of DNA. In this process, the joining of nucleotides to extend a new strand of DNA is known as:
a.   initiation   c.   termination
b.   elongation   d.   replication fork


____   28.   DNA polymerase can catalyze elongation in the 5' to 3' direction. The strand that is replicating continuously in the 5' to 3' direction is known as the ___i___ and the other strand, known as the ___ii___, is replicated in short segments. The statement given above in completed by the information in a row ______.
 
Row   i   ii
A.   lagging   lagging
B.   leading   leading
C.   leading   lagging
D.   lagging   leading

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   29.   Replication starts at a specific nucleotide sequence called the replication origin. A group of enzymes that binds to the DNA at the replication origin and play role in cleaving and unravel a segment of the double helix is called
a.   primase   c.   DNA ligase
b.   helicase   d.   DNA polymerase


____   30.   Use the following information to answer the next question.

 

The above diagram shows the flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA, and then to protein, often referred to as the central dogma. The two steps shown in the above diagram are ___i___ and ___ii___, respectively. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.

Row   i   ii
A.   transcription   replication
B.   replication    transcription
C.   translation    transcription
D.   transcription   translation

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   31.   ___i___ catalyzes the cleavage of DNA at a specific nucleotide sequence. ___ii___ splices DNA into fragments. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.

Row   i   ii
A.   DNA polymerase   DNA ligase
B.   restriction endonuclease   DNA ligase
C.   DNA Ligase   restriction endonuclease
D.   restriction endonuclease   restriction endonuclease

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   32.   Most prokaryotic organisms produce one or more enzymes to defend themselves against the infection by foreign DNA. These enzymes are known as
a.   DNA Ligase   c.   helicase
b.   restriction enzymes   d.   polymerase


____   33.   Use the following information to answer the next question.

 

In the above diagram, ‘1' represents the
a.   sticky ends   c.   primer
b.   restriction sites   d.   restriction fragments


____   34.   Use the following information to answer the next question.

 

The enzyme that catalyzes the joining of fragments to form recombinant DNA is:
a.   DNA polymerase   c.   helicase
b.   DNA ligase   d.   restriction endonuclease


____   35.   Restriction endonuclease and ligase are two types of enzymes used in the process of genetic engineering, i.e., the manipulation of genes. The restriction endonuclease differs from ligase in that it
a.   breaks the DNA at ends, while ligase causes the breaks in DNA from interior
b.   joins the fragments of DNA, while ligase breaks the DNA into fragments
c.   breaks the DNA at specific points, while the ligase joins the fragments of DNA
d.   breaks the DNA apart at each nucleotide, while ligase use the pieces to translate


____   36.   Use the following information to answer the next question

In the process of genetic engineering, recombinant DNA is produced by combining genetic material from two different sources. For this technique, genetic engineers are especially interested in a specific group of enzymes called restriction endonuclease.

These enzymes are preferred because they
a.   join the DNA fragments at 3' ends
b.   join the DNA fragments at 5' ends
c.   cut DNA at specific sites within the DNA
d.   cut DNA from their 5' or 3' ends


____   37.   Modern researchers can manipulate genetic material to alter genes and blend plant, animal and bacterial DNA; this process is known as genetic engineering. The enzymes that are commonly used in this researches are
a.   restriction endonuclease and ligase   c.   ligase and polyemerase
b.   primase and polymerase   d.   polymerase and helicase


____   38.   Imagine that you are analyzing a DNA sample from the heart tissue of an animal. Use the following information to answer the next question.

Nucleotide   Presence in DNA sample
Adenine
Cytosine
Guanine
Thymine   23%
?
?
?

What will be the composition of the remaining nucleotides?

   Cylosine   Guanine   Thymine
A.   23%   27%   27%
B.   27%   23%   23%
C.   27%   27%   23%
D.    27%   23%   23%

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   39.   The two chains of the double helix structure of DNA, as given by Watson and Crick, are ___i___, due to bonding of nitrogen base pairs by hydrogen bonds, and they are ___ii___ to each other. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.

Row   i   ii
A.   complementary   non-parallel
B.   supplementary   non-parallel
C.   supplementary   parallel
D.   complementary   parallel

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   40.   Translation is a process in which a polypeptide is produced from mRNA. What is the role of tRNA in this process?
a.   carries a particular amino acid to the correct codon site
b.   stores genetic information
c.   provides information to a ribosome
d.   carries genetic information from DNA


____   41.   If an mRNA has ACU GCU GGC CGU sequence of nucleotides, what will be the sequence of nucleotides in its master strand of DNA?
a.   UGA CGA CCG GCA   c.   TGA CGA CCG GCA
b.   TGA CGT  CCG GCT   d.   UGA CGA CCG GCT


____   42.   Some restriction enzymes will cut a particular strand of DNA the same way each time, producing an identical set of ___i___, and will have a few unpaired nucleotides in a single strand at each end referred to as ___ii___. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.

Row   i   ii
A.   restriction fragments   restriction site
B.   restriction fragments   sticky ends
C.   sticky ends    restriction fragment
D.    staggered ends   sticky ends

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   43.   The process that produces haploid gametes from diploid cells in the ovaries is known as
a.   sporogenesis   c.   oogenesis
b.   spermatogenesis   d.   amitosis


____   44.   What is the outcome of meiosis?
a.   results in formation of genetically similar cells
b.   results in formation of cells, which have haploid number of chromosomes and are genetically different
c.   results in formation of cells, which have diploid number of chromosomes and are genetically similar
d.   results in formation of cells that have haploid number of chromosomes, and are genetically similar


____   45.   Meiotic cell division is also known as reduction division. It occurs during gametogenesis. If a diploid cell has 12 chromosomes, how many chromatids will be seen in a cell at the Anaphase I and Anaphase II stages?
a.   12 and 12   c.   24 and 24
b.   24 and 12   d.   12 and 24


____   46.   How do the daughter cells of mitosis differ from those of meiosis?
a.   The number of chromosomes gets halved in mitosis, and remains the same in meiosis.
b.   The number of chromosomes is the same in mitosis, but gets halved in meiosis.
c.   The number of chromosomes gets doubled in mitosis, and remains the same in mitosis.
d.   The number of chromosomes remains the same in mitosis, but gets doubled in meiosis.


____   47.   If a cell has five pairs of chromosomes, and if this cell undergoes cell division, the number of chromosomes found in anaphase I and anaphase II, along with the chromosome arrangement with respect to chromatids, are ___i___ and ___ii___, respectively. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.

Row   i   ii
A.   10 chromosomes with single chromatid   10 chromosomes with linked sister chromatids
B.   20 chromosomes with linked sister chromatids   10 chromosomes with single chromatid
C.   10 chromosomes with single chromatid   20 chromosomes with single chromatid
D.   10 chromosomes with linked sister chromatids   10 chromosomes with linked sister chromatids

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   48.   How is the outcome of meiosis different from the outcome of mitosis?
a.   The daughter cells produced in mitosis are genetically different from the parent cells, but have the same number of chromosomes, while these are genetically similar in case of meiosis and have fewer chromosomes.
b.   The daughter cells produced in mitosis are genetically similar to the parent cells and have the same number of chromosomes, while these are genetically different in meiosis and have half the number of chromosomes.
c.   The daughter cells produced in both cases are genetically similar to the parent cells, but in meiosis, there are fewer chromosomes.
d.   The daughter cells produced in both cases are genetically different, but in mitosis, there are fewwer chromosomes in daughter cells.


____   49.   Use the following information to answer the next question.

 

Which stages of cell divisions are represented by the above diagram respectively?
a.   metaphase of mitosis and prophase of meiosis I
b.   prophase of mitosis and prophase of meiosis I
c.   prophase of mitosis and prophase of meiosis II
d.   prophase of meiosis I and prophase of meiosis II


____   50.   Which of the following statements is true with regard to the functions of mitosis and meiosis?
a.   Mitosis plays a role in formation of haploid cells with recombination of genes, while meiosis plays a role in multiplication.
b.   Mitosis plays a role in multiplication, healing, repair and growth, while meiosis results in the formation of haploid cells with recombination of genes.
c.   Both mitosis and meiosis play a role in multiplication, growth, healing and repair.
d.   Both mitosis and meiosis play a role in the formation of germ cells and recombination of genes.


____   51.   With complete dominance, one allele conceals the phenotype effect of another gene, while with incomplete dominance, neither of the two alleles can conceal the effect of each other. Which of the following rows represents the difference in interactions in their phenotypes ratio, in F2 generation?

Row   Complete dominance   Incomplete dominance
A.   1 : 1   1 : 2 : 1
B.   1 : 2 : 1   3 : 1
C.   3 : 1   1 : 2 : 1
D.   3 : 1   1 : 1

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   52.   The gene for white eye colour is present on the X-chromosome in Drosophila, and is a recessive trait. A female fly with white eyes in the F1 generation can be produced if it inherits an X-chromosome with
a.   recessive allele from father only   c.   recessive alleles from each parent
b.   recessive allele from mother only   d.   dominant alleles from each parent


____   53.   If we cross a pure red-eyed female rat with a white-eyed male rat, what is the expected ratio of male-to-female offspring from this cross (red colour is dominant over white colour, and the gene for this trait is sex-linked)?
a.   Three red-eyed males and one white-eyed female
b.   All white-eyed males and all red-eyed females
c.   All red-eyed males and all hybrid red-eyed females
d.   50 % red-eyed females and 50% white-eyed males


____   54.   In humans and most other animals, only the male carries a Y chromosome. In these species, Y-linked traits are passed from father
a.   to daughter   c.   to both daughter and son
b.   to son   d.   neither to son, nor to daughter


____   55.   The human female has two X chromosomes. In which of the following ways will x-linked traits be inherited among humans?
a.   from mother to daughter only
b.   from mother to son only
c.   from mother to both son and daughter
d.   from mother neither to son, nor to daughter


____   56.   A woman who has normal vision and is heterozygous for colour blindness has children with a man who is colour blind. What is the expected ratio of genotypes among their children?
a.   Xc Xc    : Xc Xc  :  Xc Y :  Xc y
1     :    1   :   1   :  1
b.   XC XC    : Xc Y  :  XC Y :
1 :    2   :     1
c.   XC Xc    : XC Y  :  XC Y
2     :     1  :    1
d.   XC XC     : XC Xc  :  XC Y  
1    :   1     :   2


____   57.   In our bodies, individual chromosomes contain some genes of maternal origin and some genes of paternal origin. This phenomenon is caused by
a.   linkage   c.   non-disjunction
b.   mutation   d.   crossing over


____   58.   A scientist was examining a human cell with 22 pairs of autosomes, an X chromosome and a Y chromosome. What conclusions can we drawn about the cell?
a.   It is a somatic, diploid and male cell.
b.   It is a somatic, diploid and female cell.
c.   It is a gametic, haploid and male cell.
d.   It is a gametic, diploid and male cell.


____   59.   The plant body is haploid in the case of gametophytes. What is the number of alleles needed for any single trait in the gametophytic plant body?
a.   1   c.   3
b.   2   d.   4


____   60.   Use the following information to answer next question.

The formation of sperm cells from stem cells is known as spermatogenesis. There are three phases in the process of spermatogenesis.

Which of the following phases is not a part of spermatogenesis?
a.   mitosis   c.   amitosis
b.   meiosis I   d.   meiosis II


____   61.   Use the following information to answer next question.

The formation of sperm cells from stem cells is known as spermatogenesis. There are three phases in the process of spermatogenesis.

The cells formed after the second meiotic division in meiosis is known as
a.   primary spermatocytes   c.   spermatids
b.   secondary spermatocytes   d.   spermatozoa


____   62.   Meiosis involves two phases, meiosis I and meiosis II. This type of cell division occurs during the formation of both sperm and ovum. The first meiotic division of the primary spermatocyte results in two secondary spermatocytes. .What is the result of the first meiotic division of the primary oocyte?
a.   two secondary oocytes
b.   two polar bodies
c.   two ovum
d.   one secondary oocyte and one polar body


____   63.   Meiosis is significant in sexual reproduction. Absence of meiosis may lead to
a.   a decrease in the number of chromosomes after fertilization
b.   an equal number of chromosomes after fertilization
c.   an increase in the number of chromosomes after fertilization
d.   the chromosome number remaining constant


____   64.   For 1% of all births, a woman gives birth to twins or other multiples. ___i___ twins are not alike. __ii___ twins are formed when one fertilized egg(s) develops into two offspring. The statement above is completed by the information in row:

Row    i   ii
A.   Fraternal   Identical
B.   Identical   Fraternal
C.   Fraternal   Fraternal
D.   Identical   Identical

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   65.   The series of events that a cell undergoes between one cell division and another is known as
a.   synapsis   c.   cytokinesis
b.   interphase   d.   karyokinesis


____   66.   Use the following information to answer next question.

A cell cycle includes the events occurring in a cell between one cell division and another. A cell cycle includes four distinct phases.

Which of the following three phases of cell cycle are collectively called the interphase?
a.   G1, S and mitotic phases   c.   G1, S and G2 phases
b.   S, mitotic and G2 phases   d.   S, G2 and mitotic phases


____   67.   Use the following information to answer next question.

Each phase of the cell cycle makes the cell ready to enter the other phase. The various processes that occur in a cell cycle are cytokinesis, karyokinesis, transcription, duplication, etc.

The replication of DNA occurs during
a.   G1 phase   c.   G2 phase
b.   S phase   d.   mitotic phase


____   68.   There are four phases of mitosis. The last phase of mitosis is followed by cytokinesis. Which of the following phases is the starting phase of mitosis?
a.   metaphase   c.   telophase
b.   prophase   d.   anaphase


____   69.   Telophase is the final phase of mitotic cell division. Which of the following events does not occur during telophase?
a.   appearance of nucleolus
b.   appearance of nucleus
c.   approximately equal distribution of organelles
d.   division of centrioles


____   70.   Telophase is the last phase of the mitotic cell division, which is followed by the division of cytoplasm. The division of cytoplasm in a cell is known as
a.   cytoplasmic streaming   c.   karyokinesis
b.   cytokinesis   d.   fission


____   71.   A cell passes through various phases during the cell cycle. In which phase of the cell cycle does the exact replica of genome occur?
a.   G1 phase   c.   S phase
b.   G2 phase   d.   mitotic phase


____   72.   Use the following informational to answer the next question.
 

Spindle fibres facilitate the movement of chromosomes within a cell. In the above diagram, the spindle fibres are numbered
a.   1   c.   3
b.   2   d.   4


____   73.   In which of the following phases of meiosis does the process of crossing over of chromosomes take place?
a.   prophase I   c.   anaphase I
b.   prophase II   d.   anaphase II


____   74.   Use the following information to answer the next question.

 

Sometimes chromosomes or chromatids do not separate as they normally would during meiosis and this phenomenon is called non-disjuction. This phenomenon has occurred in the above diagrams during
a.   anaphase II in A and anphase I in B
b.   anaphase I in A and anaphase II in B
c.   metaphase I in A and metaphase II in B
d.   metaphase II in A and metaphase I in B


____   75.   What would be the effect on the number of chromosomes in gametes due to non-disjunction?
a.   The chromosome number of the gametes remains the same as the parent somatic cell
b.   The gametes will have either too few or too many chromosomes
c.   Some gametes will have all the chromosomes, while others will not have any chromosomes
d.   Gametes will have half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell


____   76.   Which syndrome has symptoms of impairment of physical growth, below-average cognitive ability, almond-shaped eyes, enlarged tongue, and congenital heart defects in children?
a.   Down's syndrome   c.   Patau's syndrome
b.   Edward's syndrome   d.   Turner's syndrome


____   77.   The name of the sex-chromosomal disorder in which monosomy occurs is
a.   Patau's syndrome   c.   Turner 's syndrome
b.   Klinefelter's syndrome   d.   Jacob syndrome


____   78.   What will be the number of chromosomes in Turner's syndrome and Klinefelter's syndrome of an organism whose haploid number is 20?
a.   39 in Turner's syndrome and 41 in Klinefelter's syndrome
b.   41 in Turner's syndrome and 39 in Klinefelter's syndrome
c.   19 in Turner's syndrome and 21 in Klinefelter's syndrome
d.   38 in Turner's syndrome and 41 in Klinefelter's syndrome


____   79.   Edward's syndrome and Patau's syndromes are both genetical disorders of autosomes. Both are due to the presence of three copies of two different autosomes. Edward's syndrome and Patau's syndrome occur due to the the trisomy of chromosome numbers
a.   13 and 18, respectively   c.   18 and 21, respectively
b.   18 and 13, respectively   d.   13 and 21, respectively


____   80.   When there is one extra chromosome due to non-disjunction, it is called trisomy. In such a case, the gamete has one extra chromosome of a homologous pair. In Jacob's syndrome, the extra chromosome is present in
a.   X chromosome   c.   chromosome number 13
b.   Y chromosome   d.   chromosome number 18


____   81.   As the age of an individual increases, which of the following phenomenon has greater chance of occurring (as compared with a younger individual)?
a.   More crossing over, less nondisjunction
b.   More nondisjunction, less crossing over
c.   Both nondisjunction and crossing over will increase with age
d.   Both nondisjunction and crossing over will decrease with age


____   82.   Use the following information to answer the next question.

 

What is the number of plants with the phenotype of green and wrinkled seed?
a.   9   c.   3
b.   6   d.   1


____   83.   Use the following information to answer the next question.

 

What is the number of plants with the phenotype of yellow and wrinkled seed?
a.   9   c.   3
b.   6   d.   1


____   84.   Mendel conducted experiments on a particular plant for the laws of inheritance. Which of the following plants was used by Mendel in his experiments?
a.   mustard   c.   pea
b.   rice   d.   mango


____   85.   An individual with two identical alleles for trait, such as RR or rr, is ___i___ for the trait, while an individual with two different alleles for a trait, such as Rr, is ___ii___ for the trait. The statement given above is completed by information in row ______.

Row   i   ii
A.   homozygous   heterozygous
B.   heterozygous   homozygous
C.   homozygous   homozygous
D.   heterozygous   heterozygous

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   86.   ___i___ is the combination of alleles for any given trait in an individual whereas ___ii___ is the physical form of an individual. The statement given above is completed by the information in
row ______.

Row   i   ii
A.   phenotype   genotype
B.   genotype   phenotype
C.   gamete   phenotype
D.   genome   phenotype

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   87.   Mendel crossed true breeding plants that had yellow pods with true breeding plants that had green pods. Yellow pod colour (Y) is dominant over green pod colour (y). Predict the genotypes and phenotypes of F1 generation.
a.   yellow pods with genotype yy   c.   green pods with genotype Yy
b.   yellow pods with genotype Yy   d.   green pods with genotype Yy


____   88.   The first gene to be mapped to a specific chromosome was the gene coding for white eye colour in Drosophila melanogaster. This gene is located on which chromosome?
a.   chromosome No. 1   c.   X chromosome
b.   chromosoem No. 2   d.   Y chromosome


____   89.   ___i___ sex chromosome is present in male Drosophila and ___ii___ sex chromosome is found in female Drosophila. This statement is completed by the information in row ______.

Row   i   ii
A.   XY   XX
B.   XX   XO
C.   XO   XX
D.   XX   XY

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   90.   Which of the following scientists proposed that all new cells arise from pre-existing cells?
a.   Robert Hooke   c.   Rudolf Virchow
b.   Anton von Leeuwenhoek   d.   Walther Flemming


____   91.   The process of cytokinesis in plant cells occurs when the two daughter cell nuclei are separated by a structure called the
a.   cell plate   c.   kinetochore
b.   centromere   d.   telomere


____   92.   Which one of the following events does not occur during mitotic prophase?
a.   appearance of chromosomes   c.   disappearance of the nucleolus
b.   appearance of the spindle apparatus   d.   separation of the centromeres


____   93.   Which one of the following events does not occur during the mitotic prophase?
a.   chromatin condenses into chromosomes
b.   nuclear membrane breaks down
c.   spindle fibres break down
d.   centrioles migrate to opposite poles


____   94.   Use the following information to answer the next question.

Colchicine is a chemical that stops the process of cell division at the metaphase stage. The affected cell proceeds directly to interphase and its chromosome number is doubled. Botanists can apply colchicine to dividing plant cells to produce polyploid plants.

Polyploid plants may be commercially valuable because some of them have
a.   larger or seedless fruit   c.   drought tolerance
b.   frost resistance   d.   shorter life cycles


____   95.   Twenty-three pairs of chromosomes are present in the somatic cells of humans. Of these, how many pairs are sex chromosomes?
a.   1   c.   3
b.   2   d.   4


____   96.   The initiation codon for the process of protein synthesis in eukaryotes is
a.   UGA   c.   GCU
b.   AUG   d.   AAU


____   97.   Cells become haploid during which of the following phases of meiosis?
a.   metaphase I   c.   telophase I
b.   anaphase I   d.   anaphase II


____   98.   Which of the following plant parts is usually used for studying mitotic cell division?
a.   stem tip   c.   bud
b.   root tip   d.   flower


____   99.   Which of the following syndromes occurs only in males and is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome?
a.   Edward Syndrome   c.   Triplo-X Syndrome
b.   Klinefelter Syndrome   d.   Turner Syndrome


____   100.   A chart used to analyze the results of crosses by a visual technique that shows the possible genotypes of offspring is called a
a.   Chi square   c.   test cross
b.   Punnett square   d.   dihybrid cross


____   101.   During prophase I, homologous chromosomes pair off and create tetrads in a process called
a.   synapsis   c.   linkage
b.   recombination   d.   cross-over


____   102.   The phenomenon in which genes present on the same chromosome remain together as gametes are produced is known as
a.   non-disjunction   c.   synapsis
b.   cross-over   d.   linkage


____   103.   Read the information given below to answer the next question.

In humans, a simple explanation of hair texture suggests that it is controlled by two alleles. One allele produces curly hair and the other produces straight hair. A person who is heterozygous for the alleles will have wavy hair.

A man with curly hairs has children with a woman whose hair is straight. They have four children, all of whom have wavy hair. Based on the information given, it is reasonable to conclude that
a.   both parents are heterozygous
b.   both parents are homozygous
c.   the man is homozygous and the woman is heterozygous
d.   the woman is homozygous and the man is heterozygous


____   104.   Which of the following human diseases is sex-linked?
a.   Huntington's disease   c.   hemophilia
b.   cystic fibrosis   d.   phenylketonuria (PKU)


____   105.   Queen Victoria was a carrier of hemophilia, but there is no record of the disease in any of her ancestors. It is reasonable to suggest that she became a carrier of hemophilia as a result of
a.   recombination   c.   inbreeding
b.   a mutation   d.   crossing over


____   106.   Which of the following human characteristics occurs as result of a dominant allele?
a.   albinism   c.   polydactyly
b.   hemophilia   d.   colour blindness


____   107.   An organism with the genotype AaBb produces gametes whose genotypes are
a.   AB, Ab, aB and ab   c.   aa and bb
b.   Aa and Bb   d.   AB and ab


____   108.   DNA and RNA molecules consist of long chains of smaller units called
a.   sugars   c.   phosphate groups
b.   nucleotides   d.   purines


____   109.   The number of different types of codons in the genetic code is
a.   16   c.   48
b.   32   d.   64


____   110.   The start codon in the mRNA molecule is AUG, which also encodes for the amino acid
a.   alanine   c.   methionine
b.   lysine   d.   proline


____   111.   A primer plays a very important role in DNA replication. The primer for the process of DNA replication is a
a.   short strand of DNA   c.   DNA ligase
b.   short strand of RNA   d.   DNA polymerase


____   112.   RNA polymerase uses ___i___ as a template to synthesize ___ii___. The statement above is completed by the information in row ______.

Row   i   ii
A.   DNA   RNA
B.   RNA   DNA
C.   DNA   protein
D.   RNA   protein

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   113.   A circular DNA molecule that is separate from the chromosomal DNA in the cell of a bacterium is known as a (an)
a.   plasmid   c.   chimera
b.   restriction fragment   d.   endonuclease


____   114.   Use the following information to answer the next question.

The life cycles of some plants contains two alternating generations of adults. The diploid adult is called the sporophyte generation and the haploid adult is the gametophyte generation.

The diploid plants of the sporophyte generations produce spores by the process of
a.   amitosis   c.   mitosis
b.   meiosis   d.   binary fission


____   115.   One of the goals of the Human Genome Project was to determine sequence of the three billion base pairs found in human DNA. When was the Human Genome Project completed?
a.   2002   c.   2004
b.   2003   d.   2005


____   116.   Use the following information to answer the next question.

Imagine that A and B represent two cells, each having 42 chromosomes. Cell A undergoes mitotic cell division, while cell B undergoes meiotic cell division.

What is the number of chromosomes present in the daughter cells produced from cell A?
a.   21   c.   63
b.   42   d.   84


____   117.   When an organism possesses two copies of the same allele, its genotype is said to be ___i___. A genotype that contains two different alleles is said to be ___ii___. The statement above is best completed by the information in row ______.

Row   i   ii
A.   recessive   hybrid
B.   dominant   hybrid
C.   homozygous   heterozygous
D.   heterozygous   heterozygous

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   118.   The ability to roll your tongue is controlled by a dominant allele (T); people who have two copies of the recessive allele (t) cannot role their tongues. A cross between parents whose genotypes are TT and tt will produce a family with which of the following phenotypes?
a.   all will be tongue-rollers
b.   none will be tongue-rollers
c.   half will be tongue-rollers, half will not be tongue-rollers
d.   75% will be tongue-rollers, 25% will not be tongue-rollers


____   119.   Which of the following types of dominance was discovered by Gregor Mendel?
a.   incomplete dominance   c.   codominance
b.   complete dominance   d.   intermediate inheritance


____   120.   The discovery of the process of transformation in bacteria gave a clue that DNA encodes genetic information. The scientist who discovered the process of transformation was
a.   Frederick Griffith   c.   Rosalind Franklin
b.   Phoebus Levene   d.   Erwin Chargoff


____   121.   Use the following information to answer the next question.
In the early part of the last century, biologists thought that proteins might be the carriers of genetic information. It is now known that DNA is the genetic molecule in living organisms and that RNA carries genetic information in some viruses.
Proteins are not suitable to be the genetic molecules within cells because they
a.   are large organic compounds
b.   are composed of building blocks called amino acids
c.   do not replicate themselves
d.   catalyze biochemical reactions


____   122.   The allele that produces hemophilia is recessive and sex-linked. Suppose that the daughter of a hemophilic man has children with a man whose blood clots normally. Which of the following statements about their children will be true?
a.   All their children will have hemophilia.
b.   All their sons will have hemophilia.
c.   Some of their sons could have hemophilia.
d.   All of their children will have normal blood clotting.


____   123.   The Okazaki fragment is formed during the process of
a.   DNA replication   c.   transcription
b.   DNA sequencing   d.   translation


____   124.   DNA is absent from which of the following organelles?
a.   nucleus   c.   mitochondrion
b.   ribosome   d.   chloroplast


____   125.   The DNA ligase does NOT play any role in
a.   DNA replication
b.   DNA repair
c.   cutting DNA into fragments
d.   the creation of recombinant DNA plasmid


____   126.   The germ cells undergo the process of ___i___ while the somatic cells undergo the process of ___ii___. The statement above is completed by information given in row ______.

Row   i   ii
A.   mitosis   recombination
B.   recombination   meiosis
C.   meiosis   mitosis
D.   mitosis    meiosis

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   127.   In which organisms is polyploidy most common?
a.   insects   c.   plants
b.   humans   d.   fish


____   128.   Use the information given below to answer the next question.

Population 1. Randomly mating population with immigration and emigration
Population 2. Large breeding population without mutation and natural selection
Population 3. Small breeding population without immigration and emigration
Population 4. Randomly mating population with mutation and emigration

Which of the populations given above may be at genetic equilibrium?
a.   1   c.   3
b.   2   d.   4


____   129.   A population is a group of organisms of the same species that live together in a defined area and time. The concept that allele frequencies in a population will remain the same from one generation to the next when the population is in a state of genetic equilibrium was proposed by
a.   Hardy and Weinberg   c.   Jacob and Monod
b.   Lederberg and Tatum   d.   Watson and Crick


____   130.   Change in allele frequencies in a small breeding population due to chance events is known as ___i___. The net movement of alleles from one population to another due to migration of individuals is known as ___ii___. The statement given above is completed by the information in row:

Row    i   ii
A.   gene flow   genetic drift
B.   genetic drift   gene flow
C.   gene pool   genetic drift
D.   gene flow   gene pool

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   131.   Use the information given below to answer the next question.

Fourteen species of finches currently inhabit in the Galapagos Islands. Charles Darwin believed that a few birds of the same species were initially blown by the wind to the Galapagos Islands.

Colonization of the Galapagos Islands by a small population of finches provides an example of the
a.   founder effect   c.   apoptosis
b.   chloride shift   d.   sympatric speciation


____   132.   Use the following information to answer the next question.

 

The diagram above represents a process that leads toward a change in gene pool diversity. Which of the following processes does the above diagram represent?
a.   mutation   c.   nonrandom mating
b.   natural selection   d.   gene flow


____   133.   For a given gene that is controlled by two alleles, what is the sum of the frequency of the dominant allele and the recessive allele in a population?
a.   1.00   c.   3.00
b.   2.00   d.   4.00


____   134.   For a given gene that is controlled by two alleles, what percentage of the alleles do p and q together account for?
a.   25%   c.   75%
b.   50%   d.   100%


____   135.   Which of the following equations represents the Hardy-Weinberg equation correctly?
a.   2p2 + pq + q2 = 1.00   c.   p2 + pq + 2q2 = 1.00
b.   p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1.00   d.   p2 + pq + q2 = 1.00


____   136.   Use the following information to answer the next question.

Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disease that affects the entire body. It also results in the early death of an individual. One in every 2500 children is born with this disorder.

From the information given above, which of the following values of the Hardy-Weinberg equation can be calculated first?
a.   p   c.   p2
b.   q   d.   q2


____   137.   Evolution is a gradual process that results in a change in the genetic composition of a population. There are two types of evolution: microevolution and macroevolution. An example of microevolution is the
a.   origin of eukaryotic cells
b.   extinction of dinosaurs
c.   development of antibiotic-resistant bacterial strains
d.   origin of man


____   138.   Evolutionary adaptation refers to the phenotypic adjustment of an individual to a changing environment. Which of following mechanisms of evolution causes evolutionary adaptation?
a.   natural selection   c.   mutation
b.   genetic drift   d.   extinction


____   139.   While most mutations are neutral, some can be harmful or beneficial. The process of ___i___ occurs when a mutation produces a phenotype that causes one individual to have a ___ii___ over another. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.

Row   i   ii
A   natural selection   survival disadvantage
B   natural selection   survival advantage
C   artificial selection   survival disadvantage
D   artificial selection   survival advantage

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   140.   To achieve genetic equilibrium, a population needs to meet five conditions. Each condition impacts the genetic diversity of the population. Nonrandom mating ___i___ genetic diversity in a population and gene flow ___ii___ genetic diversity among populations. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.

Row   i   ii
A.   limits   limits
B.   decreases   increases
C.   increases   limits
D.   decreases   decreases

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   141.   A gene pool is the sum of all the alleles for all the genes in a population. Change in the gene pool of a population depends on many factors. Which of the following factors will not lead to a change in the gene pool of a population?
a.   mutation   c.   genetic drift
b.   natural selection   d.   random mating


____   142.   Use the following information to answer the next question.
 

One can conclude from the above graph that in a predator-prey relationship cycle
a.   an increase in the predator population is followed by an increase in the prey population
b.   an increase in the predator population is followed by a decrease in the prey population
c.   a decrease in the predator population does not affect the prey population
d.   a decrease in the prey population does not affect the predator population


____   143.   Use the following information to answer the next question.

 

The average relative density of snowshoe hare populations is highest when there is ___i___ food and there are ___ii___ predators. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.

Row   i   ii
A.   abundant   more
B.   abundant   fewer
C.   less   more
D.   less   fewer

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   144.   A permanent or long-term association between organisms of different species in a community is called
a.   symbiosis   c.   mutation
b.   linkage   d.   recombination


____   145.   Humans benefit from the presence of certain vitamin K–producing bacteria that live in the large intestine. The bacteria get food and shelter in return. This relationship is an example of
a.   parasitism   c.   commensalism
b.   predation   d.   mutualism


____   146.   Parasitism is a type of symbiotic association in which the parasite ___i___ and the host ___ii___. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.

Row   i   ii
A.   is harmed   is unaffected
B.   is harmed   benefits
C.   benefits   is harmed
D.   benefits   is unaffected

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   147.   Use the following information to answer the next question.

When intraspecific competition occurs within a species, some individuals may have a competitive advantage over others. For example, some members of a plant species may be able to grow longer roots and absorb more water. These individuals have an advantage over other members of the species during periods of drought, and are able to survive to pass this competitive trait to their offspring.

From the information given above, one can conclude that intraspecific competition promotes
a.   inbreeding   c.   artificial selection
b.   natural selection   d.   speciation


____   148.   Both intraspecific and interspecific competition affect population growth. Which of the following statements about how population growth is affected by competition is correct?
a.   Only intraspecific competition increases population growth.
b.   Only interspecific competition increases population growth.
c.   Both types of competition increase population growth.
d.   Both types of competition limit population growth.


____   149.   The strategy in which an organism matches itself with its surroundings in order to protect itself from predators is known as ___i___. The strategy in which an organism looks like another organism, fooling predators into believing it is that organism, is known as ___ii___. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.

Row   i   ii
A   mimicry   camouflage
B   camouflage   mimicry
C   deceptive behavior   mimicry
D   camouflage   deceptive behavior

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   150.   Use the information given below to answer the next question.

Mimicry is the protective strategy in which an organism resembles another organism, fooling predators into believing it is that organism. The ash borer is a moth that mimics the common wasp. Some predators avoid the moth, taking it to be a wasp, even though the moth has no sting.

Which of the following types of mimicry does the ash borer show?
a.   Batesian mimicry   c.   Wasmannian mimicry
b.   Müllerian mimicry   d.   Peckhamian mimicry


____   151.   Which of the following organisms is most likely to begin the process of primary succession?
a.   herbs   c.   lichens
b.   shrubs   d.   trees


____   152.   Primary succession is a gradual change in community structure that begins with a ___i___ community and leads towards a ___ii___ community. The statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.

Row   i   ii
A   pioneer   climax
B   seral   pioneer
C   pioneer   seral
D   seral   climax

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   153.   The term ___i___ refers to the movement of individuals out of a population and the term ___ii___ refers to the movement of individuals into a population. The statement given above is completed by the information in row

Row   i   ii
A   emigration   immigration
B   immigration   emigration
C   birth   death
D   death   birth

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   154.   Decrease in the size of population is caused by ___i___ and ___ii___. The statement given above is completed by the information in row:

Row   i   ii
A.   natality   mortality
B.   immigration   natality
C.   mortality   emigration
D.   emigration   immigration

a.   A   c.   C
b.   B   d.   D


____   155.   Use the following information to answer the next question.

While studying a population of finches, a researcher notices that the change in population size for the finches after one year is negative. To explain this, the researcher makes a few statements.

Which of the following statements about the above population is correct?
a.   The natality rate would have been higher than the mortality rate
b.   The rate of immigration would have been higher than the rate of emigration.
c.   The sum of births and immigration would have been greater than the sum of deaths and emigration.
d.   The sum of deaths and emigration would have been greater than the sum of births and immigration.
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