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evolution ap biology test
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does anyone has a test for AP Bio Evolution test with answers

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evolution ap biology test
2 years ago
You can take a practice AP Biology test on the Learnerator website.


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evolution ap biology test
2 years ago
does anyone has a test for AP Bio Evolution test with answers


Yeah, what textbook are you using? I can probably get some questions with answers!


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evolution ap biology test
2 years ago
Here's some AP ones!

66. Which of the following is not a source of variation in a population?
A. Inherited genetic differences.
B. Differences due to health.
C. Differences due to age.
D. Differences due to accident.
E. None of the above.

67. Which of the following examples of variation is not important from an evolutionary standpoint?
A. Genetic differences between individual organisms comprising the population.
B. Inherited differences between individual organisms comprising the population.
C. Differences due to diet, health, age or accident that have no affect on an individual's ability to survive and reproduce.
D. A and B.
E. None of the above.

68. Why is genetic variation important from an evolutionary standpoint?
A. If all organisms were the same, the entire population would be vulnerable to particular pathogens, like viruses.
B. All evolutionary adaptations (e.g. the origin of forelimbs) are the result of the gradual build up of genetic differences between organisms over geologic time.
C. Evolution (at the population level) refers to changes in the frequencies of genes in the population over time.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.

69. Which of the following is an example of genetic variation?
A. Two children have different eye colors.
B. One person is older than another.
C. One person has a scar, but her friend does not.
D. Todd eats meat, but his brother Rod is a vegetarian.
E. None of the above.

70. Which of the following is an example of environmental variation?
A. Apu is a tongue roller, but his brother Sanjay is not.
B. Marge dies her hair blue.
C. Homer inherited baldness from his father's side of the family.
D. Patti and Selma have hanging ear lobes.
E. Bart is a boy because he has both an X and a Y chromosome.

71. What's the difference between natural selection and sexual selection?
A. Sexual selection occurs during sex.
B. Natural selection is a type of sexual selection.
C. Sexual selection is a type of natural selection.
D. Sexual selection occurs within demes, natural selection does not.
E. None of the above.

72. What's the difference between genetic drift and change due to natural selection?
A. Genetic drift does not require the presence of variation.
B. Genetic drift does not involve competition between members of a species.
C. Genetic drift never occurs in nature, natural selection does.
D. There is no difference.
E. None of the above.

73. According to our reading, how did Georges Cuvier account for extinctions in nature?
A. Extinctions never occur--there are unexplored parts of the globe where organisms that appear to have gone extinct may still live.
B. Extinctions occur when the slow adaptation of organisms over time to their environment is not quick enough to help them respond to changing conditions.
C. Extinctions occur at random, they do not reflect God's will.
D. Extinctions are due to catastrophic events.
E. All of the above.
74. Why, according to our reading, did Darwin take so long to publish the Origin of Species?
A. Darwin wanted to share his theory as quickly as possible once he returned from his voyage on the Beagle.
B. It took twenty years for Darwin to develop a theory.
C. Darwin suffered from a number of illnesses.
D. Darwin was concerned about the reaction of others to the implications of his theory.
E. All of the above.
75. In which of the following ways is natural selection not analogous to artificial selection?
A. With natural selection "picking" is due to the fit of an organism with its environment; whereas in artificial selection, the breeder "picks" which organisms will breed.
B. Natural selection depends upon the presence of variation, artificial selection does not.
C. Natural selection occurs within populations, artificial selection does not.
D. There is a limit to how much change can be brought about by natural selection, no such limit exists for artificial selection.
E. None of the above.
76. Why is the advent of reproductive isolation important from an evolutionary standpoint?
A. When the organisms comprising two populations of a species can no longer interbreed, the flow of genetic material between them stops.
B. It is not important from an evolutionary standpoint. The question is based on a false assumption.
C. Reproductive isolation increases the mutation rate.
D. Reproductive isolation may slow reproduction.
E. None of the above.
77. If the theory of natural selection is the survival of the fitness, and the fittest are identified as those who survive, why isn't it regarded as a tautology (a statement that is true only because of the meaning of the terms) ?
A. The effect of traits on the fitness of an organism can be assessed independently of whether the organism indeed survives .
B. It is regarded as a tautology - the question is based on a false assumption.
C. Natural selection is true.
D. There may be some statements in science that are useful even if they are not falsifiable or refutable in principle.
E. A and D.
78. The variation natural selection operates on is due to random mutations. What does this imply about natural selection?
A. Natural selection is also a random process.
B. Natural selection is nevertheless a directed process- the likelihood one variant will be favored in a given environment over another is predictable, even if the origin is not.
C. There is no possibility God could be involved in this process.
D. A, B and C.
E. None of the above.
79. How was Mendel's work ultimately reconciled with Darwin's theory of natural selection during the evolutionary synthesis in the 1930s and 1940s?
A. Scientists recognized that once one thinks about species as populations, rather than individuals, there is no incompatibility between them.
B. Mendel's theory was replaced by the mutation theory.
C. It was recognized much of the variation we observe in nature is due to recombination, rather than mutation.
D. A and C.
E. None of the above.
80. Which of the following is evidence for Darwin's theory of common descent?
A. There are patterns in the fossil record that suggest other species have diverged from a single ancestor species.
B. There are biogeographic patterns in the distribution of species, for instance distinct bird species on an island tend to resemble one another, suggesting a common ancestor.
C. There are common stages in the early embryological development of organisms representing several distinct vertebrate groups.
D. Anatomical structures, such as forelimbs, in different groups appear to be modified versions of structures that might have been present in a common ancestor .
E. All of the above.
81. What is the relationship between the wing of a bird and the wing of a bat?
A. They are homologous because they represent modified forms of a trait present in a common ancestor (forelimbs).
B. They are analogous because while each carries out the same function (flight), this trait has arisen independently as a result of convergence (i.e. the common ancestor of both did not have a forelimb that allowed it to fly).
C. A and B.
D. They represent derived homologies.
E. None of the above.
82. Which of the following is not an example of a macroevolutionary process?
A. One lion species splits to form two lion species over geological time.
B. The same trait evolves independently in two different taxa (e.g. wings in birds and in insects).
C. As a result of their activities, humans drive Dodos (a bird species) extinct.
D. Over a short period of time, the frequency of a single gene declines from 10 to 8%.
E. All of the above.
83. Which of the following is an example of an ancestral homology?
A. Almost all modern reptiles, birds and mammals have forelimbs, a trait they also share with contemporary amphibians.
B. The first birds and all their descendant species have feathers, a trait that is unknown in any other group.
C. Humans and many insect species have eyes.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
84. Which of the following is not an example of microevolutionary change?
A. The dark form of many moth species has increased in areas darkened by pollution.
B. Penicillin resistant forms of bacteria have arisen since the introduction of antibiotics.
C. The proportion of left and right bending moths in cichlid fish remains roughly 50:50.
D. The last American eagle dies off, leading to the extinction of the species.
E. All of the above.
85. Which of the following are difficult to explain in terms of natural selection?
A. Male peacocks evolve tail feathers that would appear to make them more rather than less vulnerable to predators.
B. Male deer evolve antlers that are not used to defend themselves against predators.
C. A bird issues a warning cry that puts it at greater risk of being noticed by a predator.
D. Some traits appear to have no adaptive value.
E. All of the above.
86. Which of the following is not an example of a monophyletic taxon?
A. The first fish species and every living organism that looks like a fish .
B. The first mammal species and all its descendants.
C. The first bird species and all its descendants.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
87. Which of the following are kingdoms?
A. Monera .
B. Protista.
C. Animalae.
D. Plantae.
E. All of the above.
88. Which of the following must increase over geological time according to evolutionary biologists?
A. Size .
B. Complexity .
C. Speed of evolutionary processes such as mutation.
D. Social interactions.
E. None of the above.
89. Why is similarity per se misleading when it comes to inferring evolutionary relationships?
A. Organisms that look alike may be very distantly related to one another.
B. Similarities between two species may be due to common descent, without indicating how closely the two are related to one another.
C. A and B only.
D. The presence of a shared derived character state is often misleading when it comes to inferring relationships between species .
E. A, B, and D.
90. Which of the following are the most distantly related to one another?
A. Sunfish and dolphins.
B. Tree frogs and snakes.
C. Vampire bats and birds.
D. Bears and whales.
E. Robins and turtles.
91. How might an evolutionary biologist explain why a species of birds has evolved a larger beak size?
A. Large beak size occurred as a result of mutation in each member of the population.
B. The ancestors of this bird species encountered a tree with larger than average sized seeds. They needed to develop larger beaks in order to eat the larger seeds, and over time, they adapted to meet this need.
C. Some members of the ancestral population had larger beaks than others. If larger beak size was advantageous, they would be more likely to survive and reproduce. As such, large beaked birds increased in frequency relative to small beaked birds.
D. The ancestors of this bird species encountered a tree with larger than average sized seeds. They discovered that by stretching their beaks, the beaks would get longer, and this increase was passed on to their offspring. Over time, the bird beaks became larger.
E. None of the above.
92. How might an evolutionary biologist explain why a species of species of salamander becomes blind after colonizing a cave?
A. It is possible that in the cave there is a source of pollution that increases the mutation rate for a gene that makes salamanders blind. Over time, due to exposure to this chemical, the members of the population lose their sight.
B. Members of the ancestral population that colonized the cave differed in their ability to see. If maintaining the ability to see in the cave was a waste of energy, blind salamanders might actually have more offspring than those who could see.
C. There is no way to explain this in terms of natural selection
D. The members of this salamander species no longer needed to use their eyes. Over time, due to lack of use, they lost the ability to see.
E. None of the above.

93. Which of the following is the most fit in an evolutionary sense?
A. A lion who is successful at capturing prey but has no cubs.
B. A lion who has many cubs, eight of which live to adulthood.
C. A lion who overcomes a disease and lives to have three cubs.
D. A lion who cares for his cubs, two of who live to adulthood.
E. A lion who has a harem of many lionesses and one cub.

94. A biologist is trying to infer how five closely related species of snakes are related to one another. She notices that some of the snakes have forked tongues and others do not. Which of the following would help her distinguish the ancestral state?
A. She looks among snake fossils for evidence that being forked is a characteristic of the ancestor of this group, but determines no such fossils exist.
B. She locates a specimen of a more distantly related snake to see if it has a forked tongue.
C. She looks at a representative mammal species to see if it has a forked tongue.
D. She flips a coin.
E. None of the above.

95. How is extinction represented in a tree diagram?
A. A branch splits.
B. A branch ends.
C. A branch shifts along the X axis.
D. A branch shifts along the Y axis.
E. None of the above.

.

Hope this helps!


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evolution ap biology test
2 years ago
I found some on my PC Cool

1

The effects of natural selection may be countered by
   A)   gene flow
   B)   genetic drift
   C)   mutation
   D)   inbreeding


2
   
In relation to natural selection, evolution is the
   A)   process
   B)   outcome
   C)   mechanism
   D)   purpose


3
   
Moto Kimura's theory that opposed natural selection was the
   A)   natural theory
   B)   nearly neutral theory
   C)   neutral theory
   D)   adaptive theory


4
   
Scientists generally agree that heterozygous advantage is
   A)   rare
   B)   frequent
   C)   pervasive
   D)   none of the above


5
   
The occurrence of large or small beak sizes among seed crackers in the absence of medium-sized beaks is an example of
   A)   directional selection
   B)   stabilizing selection
   C)   disruptive selection
   D)   none of the above


6
   
Even though sickle-cell anemia is usually fatal to homozygous individuals, the disease persists because:
   A)   gene therapy has alleviated the condition
   B)   the disease is carried on a dominant allele
   C)   individuals with one allele for sickle-cell anemia are resistant to malaria
   D)   a combination of all of the above
   E)   none of the above


7
   
Sickle-cell trait in humans is a classic example of ___________________ _.
   A)   how mutations can lead only to tragic outcomes
   B)   why outbreeding is important
   C)   the superior fitness seen in heterozygotes
   D)   how every organism is an integrated gene complex


8
   
A person with sickle cell trait, having one S allele and one normal, will be resistant to malaria and eventually develop sickle cell anemia.
   A)   True
   B)   False


9
   
For a woman living in the United States, which genotype would be the most advantageous to have?
   A)   homozygous for the sickle cell allele
   B)   heterozygous for the sickle cell allele
   C)   homozygous for the normal hemoglobin allele
   D)   it doesn't matter; all are equally advantageous


10
   
For a woman living in central Africa, which genotype would be the most advantageous to have?
   A)   homozygous for the sickle cell allele
   B)   heterozygous for the sickle cell allele
   C)   homozygous for the normal hemoglobin allele
   D)   it doesn't matter; all are equally advantageous


11
   
Sickle cell anemia is caused by a change in the amino acid sequence of the two beta chains in the hemoglobin molecule. How many amino acids have been changed in each beta chain, compared to normal hemoglobin?
   A)   1
   B)   5
   C)   10
   D)   hundreds
   E)   thousands


12
   
Mating with relatives is called
   A)   inbreeding
   B)   outcrossing
   C)   random mating
   D)   clines
   E)   polymorphic


13
   
The random loss of alleles in a population is called
   A)   mutation
   B)   selection
   C)   genetic drift
   D)   electrophoresis
   E)   gene flow


14
   
Which of the following factors is most likely to contribute to gene flow between populations?
   A)   random mating
   B)   migration
   C)   mutation
   D)   genetic drift
   E)   inbreeding


15
   
In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, the term 2pq represents the frequency of the
   A)   dominant homozygotes
   B)   recessive homozygotes
   C)   dominant allele
   D)   recessive allele
   E)   heterozygotes


16
   
A scientist measures the circumference of acorns in a population of oak trees and discovers that the most common circumference is 2 cm. What would you expect the most common circumference(s) to be after 10 generations of stabilizing selection?
   A)   2 cm
   B)   greater than 2 cm or less than 2 cm
   C)   greater than 2 cm and less than 2 cm
   D)   can't tell from the information given


17
   
Refer to question 16, but this time answer what you would expect after 10 generations of disruptive selection.
   A)   2 cm
   B)   greater than 2 cm or less than 2 cm
   C)   greater than 2 cm and less than 2 cm
   D)   can't tell from the information given


18
   
Refer to question 16, but this time answer what you would expect after 10 generations of directional selection.
   A)   2 cm
   B)   greater than 2 cm or less than 2 cm
   C)   greater than 2 cm and less than 2 cm
   D)   can't tell from the information given


19
   
How common is genetic polymorphism in natural populations?
   A)   essentially all loci are polymorphic
   B)   essentially no loci are polymorphic
   C)   depending on the species, all loci are polymorphic or none are
   D)   depending on the species, more or less than half the loci are polymorphic


20
   
What percent of a typical human's loci are heterozygous?
   A)   2%
   B)   5%
   C)   37%
   D)   55%
   E)   76%


21
   
Why is genetic polymorphism important to evolution?
   A)   individual variability provides the raw material for natural selection to act on
   B)   genes cannot mutate unless they are polymorphic
   C)   only heterozygous individuals are selected in natural populations
   D)   the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is less likely to be disturbed in polymorphic populations
   E)   none of the above; genetic polymorphism is not important to evolution


22
   
In a population of wildflowers, the frequency of the allele for red flowers was 0.8. What was the frequency of the white allele, the only other allele for flower color?
   A)   0.8
   B)   0.4
   C)   0.6
   D)   0.2
   E)   0.1


23
   
Referring to question 22, what is the frequency of homozygous red flower plants in the population?
   A)   0.04
   B)   0.16
   C)   0.32
   D)   0.48
   E)   0.64


24
   
Referring to question 22, what is the frequency of homozygous white flower plants in the population?
   A)   0.04
   B)   0.16
   C)   0.32
   D)   0.48
   E)   0.64


25
   
Referring to question 22, what is the frequency of plants in the population that are heterozygous for flower color?
   A)   0.04
   B)   0.16
   C)   0.32
   D)   0.48
   E)   0.64


26
   
What is the ultimate source of genetic variability?
   A)   mutation
   B)   migration
   C)   genetic drift
   D)   nonrandom mating
   E)   selection


27
   
The movement of new genes into a population as a result of migration or hybridization is called
   A)   founder principle
   B)   selection
   C)   gene flow
   D)   bottleneck effect
   E)   adaptation


28
   
A virus killed most of the seals in the North Sea (e.g., dropped the population from 8000 to 800). In an effort to help preserve the species, scientists caught 20 seals and used them to start a new population in the northwest Pacific Ocean. Which of the following factors would most likely have the least impact in this new population?
   A)   founder effect
   B)   random mating
   C)   genetic drift
   D)   bottleneck effect


29
   
Inbreeding
   A)   increases the rate of mutation
   B)   increases the proportion of homozygous individuals in a population
   C)   never occurs in plants
   D)   all of the above
   E)   none of the above


30
   
Evolution by natural selection works best on a population having no variation.
   A)   True
   B)   False


31
   
According to Darwin's theory of evolution, evolution occurs through natural selection operating on populations in ecosystems.
   A)   True
   B)   False


32
   
The theory of population genetics and how evolution occurs includes all but which one of the following
   A)   Mating must be random.
   B)   The size of the population is small.
   C)   There is no influx of genes from other populations.
   D)   No genotype has selective advantage over another.


33
   
Using the Hardy-Weinberg Principle, which expression represents the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype?
   A)   p2
   B)   2pq
   C)   q2
   D)   q


34
   
Which statement most accurately reflects what population geneticists refer to as "fitness"?
   A)   Fitness is the measure of an organism's adaptability to various habitats.
   B)   Fitness reflects the number of mates each individual of the population selects.
   C)   Fitness refers to the relative health of each individual in the population.
   D)   Fitness is a measure of the contribution of a genotype to the gene pool of the next generation.


35
   
Mutation is a relatively unimportant source of variation and is not the foundation for evolution.
   A)   True
   B)   False


36
   
The fact that the majority of human newborns weigh around 7 pounds is reflective of ________________.
   A)   directional selection
   B)   stabilizing selection
   C)   disruptive selection
   D)   None of these is correct.

37
   
Organisms that are least likely to experience extinction over the long term are most likely to be found in _______________.
   A)   areas inhabited by humans
   B)   very stable habitats
   C)   desert
   D)   savanna

38
   
Which one of the following would cause the Hardy-Weinberg principle to be inaccurate?
   A)   The size of the population is very large.
   B)   Individuals mate with one another at random.
   C)   Natural selection is present.
   D)   There is no source of new copies of alleles from outside the population.
   E)   None of the answers is correct.


39
   
The lack of allele variation in the nothern elephant seal population is an example of:
   A)   mutations
   B)   founder effect
   C)   artificial selection
   D)   bottleneck effect
   E)   outcrossing

40
   
Which one of the following populations would most quickly lead to two groups with few shared traits?
   A)   a population with disruptive selection
   B)   a population with directional selection
   C)   a population with stabilizing selection
   D)   a population with no selection
   E)   none of the above

41
   
Mutations tend to have little effect on the allele frequency in a population.
   A)   True
   B)   False

42
   
The effects of genetic drift are most apparent in small populations.
   A)   True
   B)   False

43
   
Inbreeding increases the proportion of homozygous individuals in a population.
   A)   True
   B)   False


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evolution ap biology test
2 years ago
Here are some:

1. Which term below is a pattern of evolutionary change involving the accumulation of changes that gradually transform a species into a species with different characteristics?
 A   anagenesis
 B   cladogenesis
 C   branching evolution
 D   microevolution
 E   macroevolution

2. Bird guides once listed the myrtle warbler and Audubon's warbler as distinct species that lived side by side in parts of their ranges. However, recent books show them as eastern and western forms of a single species, the yellow-rumped warbler. Apparently, the myrtle warbler and Audubon's warbler _____.

   A live in the same areas
    B successfully interbreed and produce fertile offspring
    C are almost identical in appearance
    D are merging to form a single species
    E have undergone coevolution

3. Imagine a scenario in which part of a population of South American finches is blown by a storm onto an island far offshore and manages to survive and reproduce there for a period of 10,000 years. After that period, a climate change results in lower sea levels and the reconnection of the island with the mainland. Members of the formerly isolated island finch population can now interact freely with members of the original mainland population. Which of the following observations would, by itself, lead you to conclude unequivocally that the island finch population had evolved into a distinct species?
    A island birds all have red feathers, but the mainland birds have green feathers.
    B Individuals from the different populations sometimes mate with each other, but all of the resulting eggs are sterile.
    C The preferred food of the island birds is quite different from the diet of mainland birds.
    D Individuals from the different populations frequently direct courtship behavior toward members of the other population.
    E Hybrid offspring of matings between individuals from the two populations do not look like either parent.

4. Which one of the following conditions is necessary for speciation to occur?
   A reproductive isolation
    B sympatric speciation
    C adaptive radiation
    D mass extinction
    E interbreeding among neighboring populations
5. At which point in the adaptation of a population is it clear that speciation has occurred?
    A Gene pool changes adapt a population to a local environment.
    B Gene pool changes establish reproductive barriers between two populations.
    C An allopatric separation occurs.
    D Viable, fertile hybrids occur.

6. Prezygotic barriers _____.

    A prevent fertilization of gametes from members of sibling species
    B prevent a hybrid zygote from developing into a viable, fertile adult
    C prevent fertilization from occurring between members of the same  species with incompatible genes
    D prevent donkeys and horses from mating
    E only occur in asexual organisms

7. Three species of frogs, Rana pipiens, Rana clamitans, and Rana sylvatica, all mate in the same ponds, but they pair off correctly because they have different calls. This is a specific example of a _____ barrier, called _____.

    A prezygotic barrier ... behavioral isolation
     B postzygotic ... hybrid breakdown
    C prezygotic ... temporal isolation
    D postzygotic ... mechanical isolation
    E prezygotic ... gametic isolation

8. Which of the following reproductive barriers actually prevents individuals of sibling species from copulating successfully?

    A hybrid inviability
    B hybrid sterility
    C gametic isolation
    D hybrid breakdown
    E mechanical isolation

9. Two species of water lilies in the same pond do not interbreed because one blooms at night and the other during the day. The reproductive barrier between them is an example of _____.

    A temporal isolation
    B gametic isolation
    C mechanical isolation
    D hybrid breakdown
    E ecological isolation

10. Which of the following is an example of a postzygotic reproductive barrier?

    A One species of frog mates in April, but another mates in May.
    B Two fruit flies of different species produce sterile offspring.
    C The sperm of a marine worm penetrate eggs of the same species only.
    D One species of flower grows in forested areas, another in meadows.
    E Two pheasant species perform different courtship dances

11. Which of the following is an example of a postzygotic reproductive barrier?
    
A One Ceanothus shrub lives on acid soil, another on basic soil.
    B Mallard and pintail ducks mate at different times of the year.
    C Two species of leopard frogs have different mating calls.
    D The hybrid offspring of two species of jimsonweeds always die before reproducing.
    E Pollen of one kind of tobacco cannot fertilize another kind.

12. There are two groups of pine trees that appear to be very similar phenotypically and genotypically. However, one releases pollen in January, when the female structures of that group are receptive, and one in March. What kind of reproductive barrier is this?

    A temporal isolation
    B gametic isolation
    C mechanical isolation
    D hybrid inviability
    E a geographic barrier
13. The biological species concept cannot be applied to organisms that _____.

    A have similar  phenotypes
    B breed in different habitats
    C reproduce only asexually
    D reproduce only sexually
    E all of the above
14. Lake Victoria, in Africa, is home to a group of related fishes known as cichlids. Many of these fishes are similar in appearance but have different feeding habits. What is the best method for scientists to determine conclusively whether the fish are members of a population that has a lot of variation or members of entirely different species?

    A Observe the fish in their natural environment for possible instances of  interbreeding leading to several generations of fertile offspring.
    B Study the fossil record.
    C Compare DNA sequences, because the DNA of members of the same species should be identical.
    D Do studies on comparative anatomy, especially looking for homologous structures.
    E All of these must be done to determine whether a single population or different species are present.

15. In practice, how do scientists distinguish most species?

    A by using the morphological species concept
    B by using the paleontological species concept
    C by using the ecological species concept
    D by using the phylogenetic species concept
    E by using the biological species concept

16. Which species concept defines a species as a set of organisms with a unique genetic history?

    A morphological species concept
    B paleontological species concept
    C ecological species concept
    D phylogenetic species concept
    E biological species concept
17. Sometimes two phenotypically different populations interbreed to a limited extent, so that it is difficult to determine whether they are clearly separate species. This not a concern to scientists because this _____.

    A is quite rare
    B is true for almost every species
    C supports the theory of punctuated equilibrium
    D may indicate that the formation of a new species is in progress
    E happens only among plants, not among animals

18. Which of the following organisms are most likely to be subject to allopatric speciation?
    A whale populations of the same species located on opposite sides of the Atlantic Ocean
    B pine trees in Alaska and pine trees on the island of Madagascar
    C mountain lions in the canyons of Wyoming and in the canyons of Utah
    D fruit flies on bananas and fruit flies on oranges
    E bacteria in a hospital and bacteria in a nursery

20. In which of the following groups has sympatric speciation been most important?

    A animals
    B plants
    C bacteria
    D fungi
    E protozoa

21. If a new species of plant is to be produced by means of allopolyploidy from two parental species that are 2n = 4 and 2n = 8, how many chromosomes would you expect in the somatic cells of the new species?
    6
    12
    24
    48
    none of the above
22. A new species can arise in a single generation _____.
    A through geographic isolation
    B in a very large population spread over a large area
    C if a change in chromosome number creates a reproductive barrier
    D if allopatric speciation occurs
    E if adaptive radiation occurs


23. Lake Malawi, in the African Rift Valley, is home to more than a hundred species of cichlid fishes, each with slightly different diets and habits. All these species probably evolved from a common ancestor, making them an example of _____.

    A sympatric speciation
    B hybrid breakdown
    C adaptive radiation
    D convergence
    E hybrid sterility


24. Which of the following is not an example of adaptive radiation?
    A bony fish adapting to all areas of the ocean and fresh water
    B insects adapting to every land environment
    C speciation of finches into each Galápagos Island environment
    D a few species of roundworms existing virtually everywhere in the world
    E placental mammals replacing reptiles and earlier mammals in their niches

25. According to the punctuated equilibrium model of evolution _____.

    A the tempo of evolution comprises abrupt episodes of speciation among long periods of equilibrium
    B isolated species changing over a few thousand generations represent graduated equilibrium, not punctuated equilibrium
    C polyploidy is not a mechanism of punctuated equilibrium
    D Fossils of organisms that existed during periods of stasis should be as abundant as those of organisms that existed during periods of rapid change.
    E none of the above

26. Comparison of human fossils with living humans seems to show that there have been no significant physical changes in Homo sapiens in 30,000 to 50,000 years. What might an advocate of punctuated equilibrium say about this?
    A It is about time for humans to undergo a burst of change.
    B That is about how long we have been reproductively isolated.
    C It is impossible to see major internal changes by looking at fossils.
    D You would expect lots of changes in the skeleton in that time period.
    E Lack of change is consistent with the punctuated equilibrium model


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