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SCIN 130 Mader Quizes 1-7
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moosemarine
Lancelet
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Posts: 3
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Quote

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Part 1 of 8 -  16.65/ 16.65 Points



Question 1 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

When an organism's DNA is permanently altered, we say that it  
 A. reproduces.  
  
 B. varies.  
  
 C. mutates.  
  
 D. sequences.  
  
 E. metabolizes.  



Answer Key: C
Feedback: good Job!
Question 2 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Which of the following is not a characteristic of all living organisms?  
 A. Sexual Reproduction  
  
 B. Regulation of the internal Environment  
  
 C. Adaptation  
  
 D. Acquisition of energy  
  
 E. Response to Stimuli  



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Good Job!
Question 3 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

The main purpose of the queen fire ant is to  
 A. find food.  
  
 B. produce eggs.  
  
 C. produce food.  
  
 D. defend the eggs.  
  
 E. defend food.  



Answer Key: B
Feedback: Good Job!
Question 4 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Which of the following is not considered a basic theory of biology?  
 A. Atomic  
  
 B. Gene  
  
 C. Homeostasis  
  
 D. Ecosystem  
  
 E. Cell  



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Good Job!
Question 5 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Which of the following is not a step in the scientific method?  
 A. Scientific Law  
  
 B. Observation  
  
 C. Hypothesis  
  
 D. Conclusion  
  
 E. Experiment  



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Good Job!
 
Part 2 of 8 -  9.99/ 16.65 Points



Question 6 of 30 0.0/ 3.33 Points

Which cellular activity can be studied with a pulse-labeling experiment?  
 A.  Secretory pathway  
  
 B.  Rebuilding of the cytoskeleton  
  
 C. Breakdown of worn-out cell parts  
  
 D. Cell division  
  
 E. Cell movement  



Answer Key: A
Feedback: The pathway of protein secretion was observed by George Palade using a pulse-chase technique. The RER were briefly pulse-labeled with radioactive amino acids. Then the cells were given an excess of nonradioactive amino acids, which chases the labeled amino acids out of the ER into transport vesicles.
Question 7 of 30 0.0/ 3.33 Points

Where specifically would the highest concentration of ribosomes be found inside the cell?  
 A. Cytoskeleton  
  
 B. Mitochondria  
  
 C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum  
  
 D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum  
  
 E. Nuclear envelope  



Answer Key: C
Feedback: In eukaryotic cells, some ribosomes occur freely within the cytoplasm. Other ribosomes are attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
Question 8 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Which of the following is not part of the endomembrane system?  
 A. nucleus  
  
 B. Golgi apparatus  
  
 C. rough endoplasmic reticulum  
  
 D. smooth endoplasmic reticulum  
  
 E. mitochondria  



Answer Key: E
Feedback: Good Job!
Question 9 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

A student wants to study the process of protein synthesis. What cell structure should he focus on?  
 A. Ribosomes  
  
 B. Lysosomes  
  
 C. Cytoskeleton  
  
 D. Nucleus  
  
 E. Mitochondria  



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Good Job!
Question 10 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Which structure would be found in large numbers inside cells that are producing lots of proteins?  
 A. Lysosomes  
  
 B. Centrioles  
  
 C. Mitochondria  
  
 D. Ribosomes  
  
 E. Cytoskeletal fibers  



Answer Key: D
Feedback: Good Job!
 
Part 3 of 8 -  16.65/ 16.65 Points



Question 11 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

When one group of organisms gives rise to several other groups of organisms, the original group is referred to as    
 A. an analogous ancestor.  
  
 B. a transitional ancestor.  
  
 C. a vestigial ancestor.  
  
 D. a common ancestor.  
  
 E. a homologous ancestor.  



Answer Key: D
Feedback: Good Job!
Question 12 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

The Amish of Lancaster, PA, have a higher frequency of an unusual form of dwarfism than the population at large. This is probably an example of  
  
 A. the bottleneck effect.  
  
 B. the founder effect.
  
  
 C. the transition effect.  
  
 D. artificial selection.  
  
 E. coevolution.  



Answer Key: B
Feedback: Good Job!
Question 13 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

One of the most important observations made by Darwin on his trip around the world was that    
 A. DNA from all species is very similar.  
  
 B. species remain constant from place to place.  
  
 C. species change from place to place and throughout time.  
  
 D. species have remained constant over time.  
  
 E. species have remained constant over time in some places but not in others.  



Answer Key: C
Feedback: Good Job!
Question 14 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Structures which are fully developed in one group of organisms but reduced or possibly nonfunctional in a similar group are referred to as    
 A. analogous structures.  
  
 B. transitional structures.  
  
 C. vestigial structures.  
  
 D. homologous structures.  
  
 E. directional structures.  



Answer Key: C
Feedback: Good Job!
Question 15 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

This individual's essay on population stated that populations tend to increase faster than the supply of food:    
 A. Wallace  
  
 B. Lamarck  
  
 C. Cuvier  
  
 D. Lyell  
  
 E. Malthus  



Answer Key: E
Feedback: Good Job!
 
Part 4 of 8 -  16.65/ 16.65 Points



Question 16 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

A biologist is studying how courtship patterns of different species affect their inability to interbreed. This biologist would be studying which of the following?  
 A. Temporal isolation  
  
 B. Mechanical isolation  
  
 C. Gamete isolation  
  
 D. Habitat isolation  
  
 E. Behavioral isolation  



Answer Key: E
Feedback: Good job!
Question 17 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

When two closely related but separate species are crossed, their offspring are usually  
 A. more fit than the two parent species.  
  
 B. prezygotic.  
  
 C. sterile.  
  
 D. postzygotic.  
  
 E. haploid.  



Answer Key: C
Feedback: Good job!
Question 18 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points



This figure shows various reproductive barriers which prevent the interbreeding of different species. What does "e" represent?          
  
 A. Gamete isolation  
  
 B. Temporal isolation  
  
 C. Postzygotic isolation mechanisms  
  
 D. Hybrid sterility  
  
 E. Prezygotic isolation mechanisms  



Answer Key: D
Feedback: Good job!
Question 19 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

During the later stages of allopatric speciation  
 A. reproductive isolation between the subpopulations occurs.  
  
 B. reproduction continues between the two populations.  
  
 C. evolution ceases for a time.  
  
 D. wide phenotypic differences disappear between subpopulations.  
  
 E. gene flow continues between the two populations.  



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Good job!
Question 20 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

According to the biological species concept, which of the following is true?  
 A. It can only be applied to asexually reproducing species.  
  
 B. It relies on traits to define a species.  
  
 C. It can only be applied to prokaryotes.  
  
 D. It relies primarily on reproductive isolation.  
  
 E. It recognizes that every species has an evolutionary history.  



Answer Key: D
Feedback: Good job!
 
Part 5 of 8 -  3.33/ 6.66 Points



Question 21 of 30 0.0/ 3.33 Points

This lab exercise is a model of a real experiment. Which of the following is not an assumption of this model?  
 A. Each corn plant produces one ear of corn.  
  
 B. The soil is unique for each corn type.  
  
 C. All plants grow to maturity in 140 days.  
  
 D. The conditions of the growth chamber are constant.  



Answer Key: B
Feedback: Refer to the lab simulation.
Question 22 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

The dependent variable in the experiment was:  
 A. The length of an ear of corn  
  
 B. The number of kernels per ear of corn  
  
 C. The number of ears of corn per plant  
  
 D. The weight of the kernels of corn on one ear  



Answer Key: D
Feedback: Good job!g
 
Part 6 of 8 -  3.33/ 9.99 Points



Question 23 of 30 0.0/ 3.33 Points

When animals eat the kernels of BT-corn they are:  
 A. Being exposed to the Cry protein  
  
 B. Denaturing the protein in their saliva  
  
 C. Not ingesting the Cry protein because it has been inactivated in processing  
  
 D. Not exposed to the Cry protein because it is not expressed in the kernels  



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Refer to the "Greenhouse Handbook" for details.
Question 24 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

The damage the ECB causes in the corn plant leads to which of the following outcomes?  
 A. Lower yields of corn kernels  
  
 B. Larger sized ears  
  
 C. More roots per plant  
  
 D. Greater production of pollen  



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Good job!
Question 25 of 30 0.0/ 3.33 Points

Which of the following are true statements about BT-corn?  
 A. It can lead to the death of ECB larvae.  
  
 B. ECB cannot become resistant to it.  
  
 C. In all cases it has been found safe for human consumption.  
  
 D. It can result in smaller yields of corn seed.  



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Refer to the "Greenhouse Handbook" for details.
 
Part 7 of 8 -  9.99/ 9.99 Points



Question 26 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points



Above is a graph of the average yield for “none”,” low” and “high” infestations for the four corn types.

Reading from the graph, which corn type showed the fastest rate in reduction of yield from the “low” infestation to the “high” infestation?
  
 A. Golden Crop non-BT  
  
 B. BT 123  
  
 C. BT 456  
  
 D. Super Harvest non-BT  



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Good job!
Question 27 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Based on your lab calculations of percent reduction in yield at high infestations for the four corn types, what corn type exhibited the highest percent reduction in yield?  
 A. Super Harvest non-BT  
  
 B. BT 456  
  
 C. Golden Crop non-BT  
  
 D. BT 123  



Answer Key: C
Feedback: Good job!
Question 28 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points



Above is a graph of the average yield for “none”,” low” and “high” infestations for the four corn types.
1.       From the graph it can be seen that BT 123 and Super Harvest non-BT corn demonstrate equal yields under conditions of no infestation. How does this change under high infestations?

  
 A. BT 123 has almost a steady rate of yield while Super Harvest non-BT drops by about 35 grams.  
  
 B. BT 123 shows a slight gain in yield while Super Harvest non-BT shows a 75% drop in yield.  
  
 C. BT 123 yield drops 25 grams while Super Harvest non-BT increases its yield.  
  
 D. BT 123 demonstrates a constant yield while Super Harvest non-BT drops over half its yield.  



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Good job!
 
Part 8 of 8 -  5.0/ 6.66 Points



Question 29 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

What is photosynthesis?
The process where organisms such as trees and grasses make their own food by capturing energy from sunlight and converting it into chemical energy by keeping it in the form of sugar.

Model Short Answer: A biochemical reaction in which water and carbon dioxide are converted into carbohydrates and oxygen.
Question 30 of 30 1.67/ 3.33 Points

Explain what both pupae and larvae mean.
Pupae is the non feeding stage between larvae and adudl

Model Short Answer: The pupae is the structure in which adult moths emerge. Larvae hatch from eggs that adult moths lay on leaves.Comment:  Larvae hatch from eggs that adult moths lay on leaves; they are the juvenile form of the moth before metamorphosis into the adult form.
The pupa the insect during the developmental period between larval and adult forms in which the non-feeding organism is typically contained in a hard, protective covering in which adult moths emerge.
 


     

Quiz #2

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Part 1 of 8 -  13.32/ 16.65 Points



Question 1 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Molecules which stimulate or inhibit cell division are referred to as:   
 A. Control molecules
 
 
 B. Signaling molecules 
 
 C. Transduction molecules 
 
 D. Contact molecules 
 
 E. Checkpoint molecules 



Answer Key: B
Feedback: Good Job!
Question 2 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

A biologist is studying programmed cell death due to DNA damage which cannot be repaired. Based on this information, what would the biologist be studying?   
 A. Metastasis 
 
 B. Cytokinesis 
 
 C. Nondisjunction 
 
 D. Apoptosis 
 
 E. Angiogenesis 



Answer Key: D
Feedback: Good Job!
Question 3 of 30 0.0/ 3.33 Points

In plants, cytokinesis occurs with the formation of:   
 A. A cleavage furrow in the nuclear membrane 
 
 B. Asters and centrioles 
 
 C.  A cell plate 
 
 D. A cleavage furrow in the cytoplasm 
 
 E. A cleavage furrow in the cell wall 



Answer Key: C
Feedback: In plant cells, cytokinesis involves the formation of a new plasma membrane and cell wall at a cell plate.
Question 4 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

If a diploid parent cell undergoes mitosis, then afterwards there will be:   
 A. four haploid daughter cells 
 
 B. four diploid daughter cells 
 
 C. two haploid daughter cells 
 
 D. two diploid daughter cells 
 
 E. one haploid daughter cell and one diploid daughter cell 



Answer Key: D
Feedback:
Good Job!
Question 5 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

In mitosis, the chromosomes line up on the equator of the cell during:   
 A. Prophase 
 
 B. Anaphase 
 
 C. Interphase 
 
 D. Telophase 
 
 E. Metaphase 



Answer Key: E
Feedback: Good Job!
 
Part 2 of 8 -  16.65/ 16.65 Points



Question 6 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

When a bacteriophage attaches to a bacterial cell   
 A. only the envelope enters the cell.   
 
 B. the whole bacteriophage enters the cell.   
 
 C. only the capsid coat enters the cell.   
 
 D. only the DNA enters the cell.   
 
 E. no parts of the bacteriophage enter the cell.   



Answer Key: D
Feedback: Good job!
Question 7 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Which of the following is false about viruses which infect plants?   
 A. Plant viruses often kill the host plant outright.   
 
 B. There are approximately 2,000 plant diseases attributed to viruses.   
 
 C. Plant viruses can be spread via insects and nematodes.   
 
 D. The symptoms of plants infected with a virus include stunted growth and a discoloration of leaves.   
 
 E. Plant viruses can be spread by contaminated soil or pollen.   



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Good job!
Question 8 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

If you were a biologist studying viruses which are considered to be "naked," which of the following structures would not be present?   
 A. A capsid   
 
 B. DNA   
 
 C. RNA   
 
 D. Protein in the inner core   
 
 E. An envelope   



Answer Key: E
Feedback: Good job!
Question 9 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Which statement is not true about a retrovirus?   
 A. It contains the enzyme reverse transcriptase.   
 
 B. Viral DNA remains in the host genome.   
 
 C. It contains a DNA genome.   
 
 D. It contains an enzyme to carry out the transcription of RNA to DNA.   
 
 E. It contains a genome of RNA.   



Answer Key: C
Feedback: Good job!
Question 10 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

A biologist is studying the type of bacteriophage reproduction which does not immediately occur, but may take place sometime in the future. Based on this information you would conclude that he or she is studying which of the following?   
 A. The maturation cycle   
 
 B. The attachment cycle   
 
 C. The lytic cycle   
 
 D. The lysogenic cycle   
 
 E. The integration cycle   



Answer Key: D
Feedback: Good job!
 
Part 3 of 8 -  9.99/ 16.65 Points



Question 11 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

The main function of the trichocysts of a ciliate is   
 A. chlorophyll production.   
 
 B. eliminating excess water.   
 
 C. synthesis of carbohydrates.   
 
 D. to be photoreceptors to detect light.   
 
 E. defense and capturing prey.   



Answer Key: E
Feedback: Good job!
Question 12 of 30 0.0/ 3.33 Points

Which of the following statements about the origin of eukaryotic cells is not true?   
 A. Eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotes.   
 
 B. The chloroplast came from aerobic bacteria.   
 
 C. The mitochondria came from aerobic bacteria.   
 
 D. Eukaryotic cells are the product of endosymbiosis.   
 
 E. The chloroplast came from cyanobacteria.   



Answer Key: B
Feedback: According to the endosymbiotic theory, chloroplasts are descended from cyanobacteria, which are photosynthetic bacteria. 
Question 13 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

A biologist is studying protists that have a calcium carbonate shell with holes so pseudopods can extend outward. Based on this information you would conclude that he or she is studying which of the following?   
 A. Amoeboids   
 
 B. Radiolarians   
 
 C. Diatoms   
 
 D. Apicomplexans   
 
 E. Foraminiferans   



Answer Key: E
Feedback: Good job!
Question 14 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

All diseases caused by protozoans must be transmitted by a vector. 
 
  True
 False
 



Answer Key: False
Feedback: Good job!
Question 15 of 30 0.0/ 3.33 Points

Which of the following terms does not apply to the diatoms?   
 A. Phytoplankton   
 
 B. Silica valves   
 
 C. Autotrophic   
 
 D. Cellulose plates   
 
 E. Unicellular   



Answer Key: D
Feedback: Dinoflagellates, not diatoms, are protected by cellulose plates. 
 
Part 4 of 8 -  13.32/ 16.65 Points



Question 16 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

In pine trees, the haploid microspores undergo mitosis and are liberated as the   
 A. ovules.   
 
 B. embryo sacs.   
 
 C. eggs.   
 
 D. zygotes.   
 
 E. pollen grains.   



Answer Key: E
Feedback: Good job!
Question 17 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

If you were studying the portion of the gymnosperm which will give rise to the egg-producing gametophyte, you would be studying the   
 A. receptacle.   
 
 B. stigma.   
 
 C. microspore.   
 
 D. carpel.   
 
 E. megaspore.   



Answer Key: E
Feedback: Good job!
Question 18 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

If you were studying the geologic period when the majority of today's coal was produced, you would be studying which of the following?   
 A. The Cretaceous   
 
 B. The Carboniferous   
 
 C. The Devonian   
 
 D. The Jurassic   
 
 E. The Silurian   



Answer Key: B
Feedback: Good job!
Question 19 of 30 0.0/ 3.33 Points

Which of the following features is not an adaptation that plants had to make to move onto dry land?   
 A. A dominant gametophyte   
 
 B. Water conservation mechanisms   
 
 C. Stomata for gas exchange   
 
 D. A dominant sporophyte   
 
 E. Vascular tissue   



Answer Key: A
Feedback: A dominant sporophyte eventually allowed plants to invade and be prevalent in dry, terrestrial environments. 
Question 20 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

In a fern, the spores are produced through the process of mitosis. 
 
  True
 False
 



Answer Key: False
Feedback: Good job!
 
Part 5 of 8 -  3.33/ 6.66 Points



Question 21 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

The main activity of the exercise was to do which of the following for each prepared slide? 
 A. Measure the diameter of the cells and determine the average 
 
 B. Count the total number of cells in the field of view 
 
 C. Label and count cells in the different phases of the cell cycle 
 
 D. Count the number of chromosomes per cell in each tissue. 



Answer Key: C
Feedback: Good job!
Question 22 of 30 0.0/ 3.33 Points

To calculate the number of cells that are undergoing mitosis, you must determine … 
 A. the sum of the cells in anaphase and telophase 
 
 B. the sum of cells in prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telephase minus those in interphase 
 
 C. the sum of cells in interphase minus those in prophase 
 
 D. the sum of cells in prophase, metaphase, anaphase and teleophase 



Answer Key: D
Feedback: Mitosis includes prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase. 
 
Part 6 of 8 -  6.66/ 9.99 Points



Question 23 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Chromosomes appear aligned at equator of cell under the microscope in what phase of mitosis? 
 A. Metaphase 
 
 B. Telophase 
 
 C. Interphase 
 
 D. Prophase 



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Good job!
Question 24 of 30 0.0/ 3.33 Points

Which of the following does not occur during interphase? 
 A. DNA is duplicated   
 
 B. Chromosomes are visible 
 
 C. Cell is growing 
 
 D. Organelles and cell parts are made 



Answer Key: B
Feedback: Chromosomes do not become visible until prophase.
Question 25 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Cell cycle checkpoint ___ ensures that chromosomes are distributed accurately to daughter cells. 
 A. G0 
 
 B. G2 
 
 C. M 
 
 D. G1 



Answer Key: C
Feedback: Good job.
 
Part 7 of 8 -  9.99/ 9.99 Points



Question 26 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Cancerous cells are said to have a cell cycle that is “deregulated,” or different than a normal cell cycle. What is the most evident sign of this deregulation? 
 A. Cancerous cells divide more slowly than normal cells 
 
 B. Cancerous cells divide at the same rate as normal cells 
 
 C. Cancerous cells spend more time in interphase 
 
 D. Cancerous cells divide more often 



Answer Key: D
Feedback: Good job!
Question 27 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Cancerous cells have unregulated cell division which is reflected in which of the following? 
 A. They have Mitotic Indexes that vary little from normal cells 
 
 B. The cancerous cells divide more slowly than normal cells. 
 
 C. Cancerous cells’ Mitotic Indexes are smaller than normal cells. 
 
 D. They have higher Mitotic Indexes 



Answer Key: D
Feedback: Good job!
Question 28 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

What observation can be made about cancer cells based on the mitotic indices that have been measured in normal versus cancer cells? 
 A. Cancerous cells divide more often 
 
 B. Cancerous cells divide at the same rate as normal cells 
 
 C. Cancerous cells spend more time in interphase 
 
 D. Cancerous cells divide more slowly than normal cells 



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Good job!
 
Part 8 of 8 -  3.33/ 6.66 Points



Question 29 of 30 0.0/ 3.33 Points

Explain how you calculated the mitotic index of each tissue sample.
I used the example in the lab 2 worksheet.



Mitotic Index = (# cells dividing in Tissue Sample 1 + # cells dividing in Tissue Sample 2) / (total # cells in Sample 1 + total number of cells in Sample 2)

X 100%



Model Short Answer: Mitotic Index = (# cells dividing in Tissue Sample 1 + # cells dividing in Tissue Sample 2) / (total # cells in Sample 1 + total number of cells in Sample 2)
X 100%
Comment:  Your answers have come directly from the lab worksheet and therefore are not eligible for credit since the quizzes are CLOSED BOOK/NOTES and no outside resources should be used when you take these quizzes. If this happens again on any future quizzes, you will receive a “0” on the entire quiz and the incident will be reported to the Academics Department.
 
 
Question 30 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Explain what happens during telophase.
Telophase is the last phase of mitosis. The spindle fibers are chemically broken down and disappear. A nuclear envelope reforms around each set of chromosomes. These chromosomes begin to uncoil, and the nucleolus reappears as rRNA is once again made.  Now mitosis is complete.

Model Short Answer: Telophase is the final phase of mitosis. In Telophase two daughter cells are formed with a complete set of chromosomes at each end of the cell. The cytoplasm divides the nucleolus and nuclear envelope reappear and the chromosomes begin to uncoil. When the new cells are separated they enter Interphase and a new cycle begins. 


     

Quiz #3

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Part 1 of 8 -  16.65/ 16.65 Points



Question 1 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Which of the following is not a characteristic of sponges? 
 A. They are sessile filter feeders.   
 
 B. Flagellated collar cells move water.   
 
 C. They have flagellated larva.   
 
 D. They reproduce sexually and asexually.   
 
 E. Water enters through a single cavity, the osculum.
 



Answer Key: E
Feedback: Good job!
Question 2 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Which of the following have a true coelom? 
 A. Tapeworm   
 
 B. Fluke   
 
 C. Mollusc   
 
 D. Roundworm   
 
 E. Planarian
 



Answer Key: C
Feedback: Good job!
Question 3 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

In the lifecycle of Ascaris, the final place of residence of the adult worm is 
 A. the intestine of humans.   
 
 B. the lungs of a human.
 
 
 C. under the skin of humans.   
 
 D. the circulatory system of humans.   
 
 E. the liver of humans.   



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Good job!
Question 4 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Which of the following is not a beneficial role that bats have in an ecosystem and for humans? 
 A. They help pollinate flowers. 
 
 B. They produce a powerful anticoagulant used in medicine. 
 
 C. They help disperse seeds. 
 
 D. Their blood is used to treat human diseases.   
 
 E. They feed on insects.
 



Answer Key: D
Feedback: Good job!
Question 5 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

If the cells of a sponge are mechanically separated by a coarse cloth bag, the cells then 
 A. reproduce sexually.   
 
 B. go back to primitive cells and soon differentiate.   
 
 C. form spicules in the pattern of the cloth.   
 
 D. reassemble into a new organized sponge with each cell resuming its original job. 
 
 E. die from being separated.   



Answer Key: D
Feedback: Good job!
 
Part 2 of 8 -  16.65/ 16.65 Points



Question 6 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

A plant physiologist is studying the parts of the shoot system in a plant. Based on this information, which of the following would he or she not be interested in studying?   
 A. The internodes   
 
 B. The axillary buds
 
 
 C. The petioles   
 
 D. The nodes   
 
 E. The roots   



Answer Key: E
Feedback: Good job!
Question 7 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

A plant physiologist is studying the structures found on plants which increase the absorptive capacity of the roots. Based on this information you would conclude that he or she is studying which of the following structures?   
 A. The root petioles   
 
 B. The root hairs   
 
 C. The root internodes 
 
 D. The axillary roots   
 
 E. The root nodes
 



Answer Key: B
Feedback: Good job!
Question 8 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

This figure shows the organization of the plant body. What does "d" represent?

 
 A. The internode   
 
 B. An axillary bud   
 
 C. The node   
 
 D. The terminal bud   
 
 E. A lateral branch root
 



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Good job!
Question 9 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Which of the following is not a function of the stem in most plants? 
 A. To support lateral branches   
 
 B. To produce carbohydrates   
 
 C. To carry carbohydrates   
 
 D. To support the leaves
 
 
 E. To carry water   



Answer Key: B
Feedback: Good job!
Question 10 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Sclerenchyma cells have thick secondary cell walls impregnated with this organic substance that makes the walls tough and hard. 
 A. Cellulose   
 
 B. Pith
 
 
 C. Cuticle   
 
 D. Lignin   
 
 E. Xylem   



Answer Key: D
Feedback: Good job!
 
Part 3 of 8 -  16.65/ 16.65 Points



Question 11 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

The contents of the phloem always move down the stem of the plant.
 
  True
 False
 



Answer Key: False
Feedback: Good job!
Question 12 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

The absorption of toxic substances by plants is referred to as phytoremediation.
 
  True
 False
 



Answer Key: True
Feedback: Good job!
Question 13 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Water is transported in vascular plants through which of the following? 
 A. Phloem   
 
 B. Spongy mesophyll   
 
 C. Xylem   
 
 D. Companion cells   
 
 E. Sieve-tube members
 



Answer Key: C
Feedback: Good job!
Question 14 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Guard cells open a stoma because

 
 A. potassium ions move out of the guard cells followed by water moving in.

 
 
 B. water moving into the guard cells followed by potassium ions moving out.   
 
 C. potassium ions move into the guard cells followed by water moving out.   
 
 D. potassium ions move out of the guard cells followed by water moving out.   
 
 E. potassium ions move into the guard cells followed by water moving in.   



Answer Key: E
Feedback: Good job!
Question 15 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

The waxy covering of the upper and lower epidermis which is found in some plants is known as the
 
 A. phloem sap.   
 
 B. cuticle.   
 
 C. guard cells.   
 
 D. Casparian strip.   
 
 E. stomata.   



Answer Key: B
Feedback: Good job!
 
Part 4 of 8 -  16.65/ 16.65 Points



Question 16 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Which of the following is NOT a type of fruit?
 
 A. An aggregate fruit   
 
 B. A dry fruit   
 
 C. A fleshy fruit   
 
 D. A globular fruit   
 
 E. A simple fruit   



Answer Key: D
Feedback: Good job!
Question 17 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Which of the following is arranged in the proper order?
 
 A. Pollination, fertilization, germination, seed formation   
 
 B. Seed formation, fertilization, germination, pollination   
 
 C. Germination, seed formation, fertilization, pollination   
 
 D. Fertilization, pollination, seed formation, germination   
 
 E. Pollination, fertilization, seed formation, germination   



Answer Key: E
Feedback: Good job!
Question 18 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Which of the following terms best describes the condition where one species changes, forcing another species to change so that in the end, the two species are suited to one another?
 
 A. Genetic drift   
 
 B. Mutualism   
 
 C. Symbiosis   
 
 D. Commensalism   
 
 E. Coevolution   



Answer Key: E
Feedback: Good job!
Question 19 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Which of the following is the most important contribution that large mammals such as bears and raccoons play in completing the life cycle of plants?
 
 A. Helps plants obtain nutrients   
 
 B. Seed dispersal   
 
 C. Helps plants obtain water   
 
 D. Pollination   
 
 E. Fertilization   



Answer Key: B
Feedback: Good job!
Question 20 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

In which of the following do plants sometimes depend on animals to complete their life cycle?
 
 A. Fertilization   
 
 B. Consuming leaves   
 
 C. To obtain water   
 
 D. Pollination   
 
 E. To obtain nutrients   



Answer Key: D
Feedback: Good job!
 
Part 5 of 8 -  6.66/ 6.66 Points



Question 21 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

How can a potometer be assembled? 
 A. By using a ring stand, clamps, a 100mL pipette, a 10mL burette, and plastic tubing 
 
 B. By using a ring stand, clamps, a 10mL pipette, a 100mL burette, a and a flask 
 
 C. By using a ring stand, beaker, hot plate, a 10mL pipette, a 100mL burette, and a clamp 
 
 D. By using a ring stand, clamps, a 10mL pipette, a 100mL burette, a T-tube, glass tubing, and rubber tubing 



Answer Key: D
Feedback: Good job!
Question 22 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

If you were using a potometer in a real lab setting, how would you determine how much water the plant has lost by transpiration? 
 A. Determine the absorption spectra of the plant pigments before and after the time period 
 
 B. Record the water level in the pipette before and after the time period 
 
 C. Measure the length of the leaf before and after the time period 
 
 D. Weigh the plant before and after the time period 



Answer Key: B
Feedback: Good job!
 
Part 6 of 8 -  6.66/ 9.99 Points



Question 23 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Stomata must remain open for extended periods of time in order to 
 A. Exchange gasses 
 
 B. Absorb water 
 
 C. Remove toxins 
 
 D. Balance internal cell pressure 



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Good job!
Question 24 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

What physical principle explains the upward movement of water in a plant? 
 A. Capillary action 
 
 B. Root pressure 
 
 C. Respiration 
 
 D. Gravity 



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Good job!
Question 25 of 30 0.0/ 3.33 Points

The force behind the movement of water in vascular plants from the roots to the leaves is: called: 
 A. Capillary action 
 
 B. Photosynthesis 
 
 C. Gravity 
 
 D. Centrifugal force 



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Transpirational pull is caused by capillary action.
 
Part 7 of 8 -  9.99/ 9.99 Points



Question 26 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

The average transpiration rate for all 9 plants under normal conditions is 2.99mL/hour. The average transpiration rate in front of the lamp is 3.16mL/hour, a 6% increase. What can you conclude from this? 
 A. The presence of the lamp resulted in lower transpiration rates compared to normal. 
 
 B. Plants transpire at a higher rate when the lamp was not present. 
 
 C. On average plants transpire at a higher rate compared to normal in front of a lamp. 
 
 D. Removing the lamp helps the plant grow. 



Answer Key: C
Feedback: Good job!
Question 27 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

How does light affect the rate of transpiration in English Ivy? 
 A. Adding light decreases the rate of transpiration 2.1 mL 
 
 B. Adding light typically increases the rate of transpiration 
 
 C. Adding light has no effect on the rate of transpiration after one hour 
 
 D. Adding light decreases the rate of transpiration 



Answer Key: B
Feedback: Good job!
Question 28 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Devil’s Ivy demonstrated the lowest percent increase in transpiration under the heater (41%) and fan (59%) compared to other plants. Which of the following is a valid prediction based on this information? 
 A. Devil’s Ivy will conserve water in dry, windy conditions better than the other plants. 
 
 B. Devil’s Ivy will drown if over watered. 
 
 C. The other plants will grow faster than Devil’s Ivy. 
 
 D. Devils Ivy will not grow in dry conditions. 



Answer Key: A
 
Part 8 of 8 -  5.5/ 6.66 Points



Question 29 of 30 3.0/ 3.33 Points

Based on the results from the lab, compare and contrast the effects of wind and light on the transpiration rate of plants.
All plants in the lab exercise had higher levels of transpiration rates with wind and light. The wind have a greater effect vice the light due to accelerated evaporation.

Model Short Answer: All of the plants experienced an increase in transpiration rate with wind and most did with the lamp. Overall, wind increased transpiration rates more than the light did.Comment:  Not all plants increased its transpiration rate with light; four actually decreased.
 
 
Question 30 of 30 2.5/ 3.33 Points

Based on the results from the lab, compare and contrast the effects of heat and light on the transpiration rate of plants.
All plants in the lab exercise had higher levels of transpiration rates with heat and light. The heater have a greater effect vice the light due to the accelerated evaporation.

Model Short Answer: Heat increased the transpiration rates for all plants and light for most. Overall, transpiration was increased more with the heater than with the lamp.Comment:  Most plants increased with light but not all.
 
     

Quiz #4

Return to Assessment List


 
Part 1 of 7 -  19.98/ 23.31 Points



Question 1 of 30 0.0/ 3.33 Points

A number of populations of different species interacting with one another is called:   
 A. An ecosystem   
 
 B. Competition   
 
 C. A community   
 
 D. Symbiosis   
 
 E. Predation   



Answer Key: C
Feedback: A community consists of all the various populations interacting in the same area. 
Question 2 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

All members of the same species that inhabit a particular area are termed a(n):   
 A. Biosphere   
 
 B. Community   
 
 C. Niche   
 
 D. Ecosystem   
 
 E. Population   



Answer Key: E
Feedback: Good job!
Question 3 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

An ecosystem contains:   
 A. Only the biotic components of the environment   
 
 B. Both the living and the abiotic components of the environment   
 
 C. Only the food relationships found in an environment   
 
 D. Only the energy flow components of the environment   
 
 E. Only the abiotic components of the environment   



Answer Key: B
Feedback: Good job!
Question 4 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

The maximum population that the environment can support for an indefinite period of time is called the:   
 A. Carrying capacity   
 
 B. Environmental resistance   
 
 C. Replacement reproduction   
 
 D. Biotic potential   
 
 E. Demographic transition   



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Good job!
Question 5 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

If the growth rate increases, the doubling time:   
 A. Decreases   
 
 B. Remains the same   
 
 C. Increases, then decreases   
 
 D. Increases   
 
 E. Decreases, then increases   



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Good job!
Question 6 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

The term used to describe population members that are the same age and have the same chances of surviving is:   
 A. A metapopulation   
 
 B. A family   
 
 C. A cohort   
 
 D. A population   
 
 E. Biotic potential   



Answer Key: C
Feedback: Good job!
Question 7 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Ecology is best defined as the study of:   
 A. Populations   
 
 B. Population increases and decreases   
 
 C. How populations are restricted by environmental resistance   
 
 D. The rate of population change   
 
 E. Organisms as they interact with other organisms and their physical surrounding   



Answer Key: E
Feedback: Good job!
 
Part 2 of 7 -  23.31/ 23.31 Points



Question 8 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Male birds court females of the correct species because they look like their mother. This is an example of:   
 A. A learned behavior   
 
 B. An altruistic act   
 
 C. A fixed action pattern   
 
 D. An innate behavior   
 
 E. Imprinting   



Answer Key: E
Feedback: Good job!
Question 9 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

If you were studying a type of learned behavior that causes a family of baby ducks to follow their mother you would be studying which of the following?   
 A. Insight learning   
 
 B. Motivation   
 
 C. Operant conditioning   
 
 D. Imprinting   
 
 E. Extinction   



Answer Key: D
Feedback: Good job!
Question 10 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Which of the following statements is NOT true for inherited behavior?   
 A. It is a fixed action pattern   
 
 B. All members of a species perform the exact same sequence   
 
 C. Once the fixed action pattern starts, it can be modified by behavior   
 
 D. The fixed action pattern is initiated by a sign stimulus   
 
 E. The behavior pattern is stereotyped   



Answer Key: C
Feedback: Good job!
Question 11 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

If you were studying a type of learning which occurs when an animal solves a problem without any prior experience with that problem you would be studying which of the following?   
 A. Insight learning   
 
 B. Unconditioned learning   
 
 C. Conditioned learning   
 
 D. Fixed action learning   
 
 E. Imprint learning   



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Good job!
Question 12 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Which of the following about mole rats is not true?   
 A. They are extremely social   
 
 B. They spend part of their lives underground   
 
 C. They have little hair   
 
 D. The queen is the only female who reproduces   
 
 E. The queen runs the colony   



Answer Key: B
Feedback: Good job!
Question 13 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

The sensitive period is most closely associated with:   
 A. Imprinting   
 
 B. Extinction   
 
 C. Motivation   
 
 D. Insight learning   
 
 E. Operant conditioning   



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Good job!
Question 14 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Imprinting and songbird singing are both examples of:   
 A. Altruism   
 
 B. Innate but not learned behavior   
 
 C. Kin selection   
 
 D. Behavior that requires some learning   
 
 E. A type of courtship ritual   



Answer Key: D
Feedback: Good job!
 
Part 3 of 7 -  13.32/ 19.98 Points



Question 15 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

A form of symbiosis in which one participant benefits and the other apparently is not benefited nor harmed is:   
 A. Commensalism   
 
 B. Parasitism   
 
 C. Competition   
 
 D. Mutualism   
 
 E. Predation   



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Good job!
Question 16 of 30 0.0/ 3.33 Points

What is the symbiotic relationship where one species benefits and the other species is injured but not killed?   
 A. Mutualism   
 
 B. Competition   
 
 C. Commensalism   
 
 D. Predation   
 
 E. Parasitism   



Answer Key: E
Feedback: The effects of parasites on the health of the host can range from slightly weakening them to actually killing them over time. 
Question 17 of 30 0.0/ 3.33 Points

Another name for heterotrophs is consumer. 
 
  True
 False
 



Answer Key: True
Feedback: Heterotrophs need a preformed source of organic nutrients. They are called consumers because they consume food. 
Question 18 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Interaction between two species as both attempt to use the same environmental resources is:   
 A. An ecosystem   
 
 B. Competition   
 
 C. Predation   
 
 D. Symbiosis   
 
 E. A community   



Answer Key: B
Feedback: Good job!
Question 19 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

The ability of some animals to blend into the background is known as camouflage. 
 
  True
 False
 



Answer Key: True
Feedback: Good job!
Question 20 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Secondary succession occurs in an area where no soil is present. 
 
  True
 False
 



Answer Key: False
Feedback: Good job!
 
Part 4 of 7 -  3.33/ 6.66 Points



Question 21 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Which of the following is not true about the paramecium used in this lab simulation? 
 A. Do not compete for resources 
 
 B. Can grow alone 
 
 C. Can grow together 
 
 D. Do not prey upon each other 



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Good job!
Question 22 of 30 0.0/ 3.33 Points

How long were the cultures allowed to grow? 
 A. 2 weeks 
 
 B. 24 hours 
 
 C. 16 days 
 
 D. 2 days 



Answer Key: C
Feedback: Refer to the lab simulation for details.
 
Part 5 of 7 -  9.99/ 9.99 Points



Question 23 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

If two species are living together, the species that can outcompete the competition…. 
 A. Will grow more slowly than the other species 
 
 B. Is more likely to survive and reproduce 
 
 C. Will succumb to the success of the other species 
 
 D. Will be short changed eventually 



Answer Key: B
Feedback: Good job!
Question 24 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

What is it called when members of a single species compete for resources? 
 A. Interspecific competition 
 
 B. Specific competition 
 
 C. Intraspecific competition 
 
 D. Nonspecific competition 



Answer Key: C
Feedback: Good job!
Question 25 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Why do genetic variations slowly become perpetuated throughout a population following colonizing a new niche? 
 A. Colonizing individuals change the available habitat 
 
 B. One male controls the breeding in the population 
 
 C. The genetic variations allow them to utilize the new resources   
 
 D. The genetic variations limit them to utilizing a single resource 



Answer Key: C
Feedback: Good job!
 
Part 6 of 7 -  9.99/ 9.99 Points



Question 26 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points



Based on the data above, which culture grew at the fastest rate? 
 A. P. aurelia alone 
 
 B. P. caudatum mixed 
 
 C. P. caudatum alone 
 
 D. P. aurelia mixed 



Answer Key: A
Feedback: Good job!
Question 27 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

What about the data from the lab simulation demonstrates that two species cannot occupy the same niche? 
 A. The P. aurelia grew slowest. 
 
 B. The P. aurelia eventually died off when grown in the presence of P. caudatum 
 
 C. The P. caudatum eventually died off when grown in the presence of P. aurelia. 
 
 D. The P. caudatum grew slowest. 



Answer Key: C
Feedback: Good job!
Question 28 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Which two cultures reached nearly the same carrying capacity? (Select two answers)  A. P. aurelia mixed 
  B. P. caudatum alone 
  C. P. aurelia alone 
  D. P. caudatum mixed 


Answer Key: A, C
Feedback: Good job!
 
Part 7 of 7 -  1.67/ 6.66 Points



Question 29 of 30 0.0/ 3.33 Points

From the lab, which species experienced the fastest growth rate and under what treatment was this exhibited?
I dont fully understand the question.  But P. caudatum reached its carrying capacity the fastest while P. aurelia had the most exponential growth.

Model Short Answer: Paramecium aurelia experienced the fast rate of growth. While this species experienced the highest growth rates under both isolated and mixed environments, the isolated experiment proved to be the most accommodating environment. The lack of resource competition facilitated the highest rate of exponential growth.Comment:  Paramecium aurelia experienced the fast rate of growth. While this species experienced the highest growth rates under both isolated and mixed environments, the isolated experiment proved to be the most accommodating environment. The lack of resource competition facilitated the highest rate of exponential growth.
 
 
Question 30 of 30 1.67/ 3.33 Points

Formulate a hypothesis about how you think the two species of paramecia will grow alone and how they will grow when they are grown together. Then explain how you would test your hypothesis.
If two species of paramecia grew alone they would thrive because they would have no others to compete with. On the flip side of that if they are together in the same environment then there would be intraspecific competition.

Model Short Answer: Variable, but something like this: Under a lack of resource competition, each species will experience exponential growth until reaching their respective carrying capacities. Under the competitive, mixed, scenario, one species will outcompete the other species for the bacterial resource. These hypotheses will be tested by observing the abundance of each species in both isolated and mixed cultures for a time period of 16 days, counting their abundance every 2 days.Comment:  Variable, but something like this: Under a lack of resource competition, each species will experience exponential growth until reaching their respective carrying capacities. Under the competitive, mixed, scenario, one species will outcompete the other species for the bacterial resource. These hypotheses will be tested by observing the abundance of each species in both isolated and mixed cultures for a time period of 16 days, counting their abundance every 2 days.
 
     

Quiz #5

Return to Assessment List


 
Part 1 of 6 -  23.31/ 33.3 Points



Question 1 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

What type of lake has nutrient-poor water, a small amount of organic matter, and low productivity?   
 A. An epipelagic lake 
 
 B. A mesopelagic lake
 
 
 C. A eutrophic lake
 
 
 D. A bathypelagic lake   
 
 E. An oligotrophic lake
 



Answer Key: E
Feedback: Good job!
Question 2 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

Temperate grasslands are referred to as prairies in North America. 
 
  True
 False
 



Answer Key: True
Feedback: Good job!
Question 3 of 30 0.0/ 3.33 Points

Which ecosystem contains the most different kinds of species and total amount of living matter? 
 A. Temperate deciduous forest   
 
 B. African savanna
 
 
 C. Taiga   
 
 D. Tropical rain forest   
 
 E. Tundra   



Answer Key: D
Feedback: The tropical rain forest may be the richest ecosystem, in terms of both number of different kinds of species and their abundance. The diversity of species is enormous—a 10-km2 area of may contain 1,500 species of flowering plants, including the trees. 
Question 4 of 30 0.0/ 3.33 Points

Which ecosystem are the Russian steppes, South American pampas and the North American prairies?  
   
 A. Temperate deserts
 
 
 B. Temperate rain forests   
 
 C. Tropical rain forests   
 
 D. Temperate deciduous forests
 
 
 E. Temperate grasslands
 



Answer Key: E
Feedback: The temperate grasslands include the Russian steppes, the South American pampas, and the North American prairies 
Question 5 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

The flat-topped acacia tree will be found in the ___________ ecosystem.   
 A. Tundra
 
 
 B. Desert
 
 
 C. Savanna grassland   
 
 D. Taiga   
 
 E. Prairie grassland
 



Answer Key: C
Feedback: Good job!
Question 6 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

The taiga is a:   
 A. Grassland   
 
 B. Tropical rainforest
 
 
 C.   Desert
 
 
 D. Temperate rain forest   
 
 E. Coniferous forest   



Answer Key: E
Feedback: Good job!
Question 7 of 30 3.33/ 3.33 Points

What type of forest is found in a broad belt in Northern Eurasia and North America, with cone-bearing trees? 
 A. Tropical rain forest
 
 
 B. Desert
 
 
 

Extra informationMader
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A year ago

Moosemarine your quiz cut off on Quiz#5 can you please repost quiz#5-7



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A year ago

Is this for the 8 or 16 week AMU course?



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A year ago

8 week



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9 months ago

can somebody pls. let me know if this is the same one for Dec 2013, i'm currently taking it. Mader version



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