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Home Q & A Board Biology-Related Homework Help Medicine Nursing and Clinical
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winterw0lf winterw0lf
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6 years ago
A 37-year-old female patient has a PTT of 76 seconds (reference range, 25 to 37 seconds). Her plasma is mixed 1:1 with normal plasma. An immediate PTT performed on the mix is 74 seconds. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
 
  a. Hemophilia A
  b. Factor VIII inhibitor
  c. Intrinsic factor deficiency
  d. Lupus anticoagulant
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#1
6 years ago
ANS: D
A prolonged PTT that remains prolonged after an immediate repeat of the PTT on the 1:1 mix is seen in patients (either male or female subject) with the lupus anticoagulant. A patient with hemophilia A would most likely be a male subject (female hemophilia A is rare). In addition, the immediate 1:1 mix should correct, as it also would with an intrinsic factor deficiency. The PTT on an immediate 1:1 mix in the presence of a factor VIII inhibitor would also essentially correct.
winterw0lf Author
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#2
6 years ago
You are the best
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