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EZ EZ
wrote...
6 years ago

Since all operas are musical plays, and since there are some musical plays that are not
  obscene, it follows that no operas are obscene.


 
  What will be an ideal response?
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FiercerChin Author
wrote...
6 years ago

ANS:This
passage contains an argument. The issue is whether operas are obscene. The
conclusion is that no operas are obscene. The first premise is that all operas are musical plays.
The second premise is that there are some musical plays that are not obscene.
This passage is a deductive categorical syllogism.
All operas are musical plays.
Some musical plays are not obscene plays.
No operas are obscene plays.
Since  all operas are musical plays, and since  there are some musical plays that are not
obscene, it follows that  no operas are obscene.



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EZ Author
wrote...
6 years ago
You are the best
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