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tubalcain tubalcain
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Posts: 8
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9 years ago
In a simple linear regression analysis, the following sum of squares are produced:

f$sum{(y-ar{y})^{2}}f$ = 400

f$sum{(y-y')^{2}}f$ = 80

f$sum{(y'-ar{y})^{2}}f$ = 320

The proportion of the variation in Y that is explained by the variation in X is:
A.80%    
B.50%    
C.25%    
D.20%    
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Valued Member
On Hiatus
9 years ago
I think the answer is A. 80%
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