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zzz1090 zzz1090
wrote...
Posts: 204
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12 years ago
Are inbreeding and assortative mating consistent with the assumption of random
mating of the Hardy-Weinberg Principle? yes or no & why or why not?
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wrote...
12 years ago
No, because neither of these is random mating.
wrote...
12 years ago
Neither is.

Random mating assumes that in any generation two individuals will mate - this will occur at random and the alleles they carry will depend on the allele frequency, so at any gene locus if an allele occurs at frequency 0.8 then there is a 0.8 x 0.8 chance that both individuals will carry this and so allele frequencies will be maintained from generation to generation (equilibrium), that is how you apply the Hardy-Weinberg formula.

When there is assortative mating, this is violated because individuals 'choose' a mating partner in some way e.g. blue birds mate only with blue birds and red mate with red - this will change the allele frequencies every generation.

With inbreeding, again non-random, the chances of shared alleles are higher because of their shared descent and the equilibrium breaks down.

Both the latter two are very common in domestic breeds, which is why using traditional methods of studying population genetics in them so difficult.
wrote...
12 years ago
No.
wrote...
12 years ago
Of course yes.
wrote...
12 years ago
I think no.
wrote...
12 years ago
no doubt
wrote...
12 years ago
no doubt
wrote...
12 years ago
I hope yes.
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