Elections Conventions Presidential Nominating.docx

Elections Conventions Presidential Nominating 2) When _____ is high, as it is in the U.S., even losers of elections accept the results peacefully. A) legitimacy B) voter registration C) voter participation D) the degree of clarity of the idea in a party platform E) policy voting   3) The three kinds of elections in the US are A) primary elections, ancillary elections, and corollary elections B) primary elections, competitive elections, and noncompetitive elections C) primary elections, general elections, and competitive elections D) primary elections, secondary elections, and tertiary elections E) primary elections, general elections, and elections on specific policy questions   4) In the US, elections are used to A) select officeholders B) make or ratify legislation   C) select party nominees   D) all of the above   E) none of the above   5) The belief that in order to support democratic government a citizen should always vote is a belief in the notion of A) the mandate theory of elections B) civic duty   C) political legitimacy   D) suffrage   E) political efficacy 14) An election whereby voters are given the chance to approve or disapprove some legislative act or constitutional amendment is called A) a ratification election. B) a referendum. C) a direct primary. D) a direct election. E) an initiative petition. 17) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Most states require initiative petitions to gain signatures equal to about 10 percent of the voting population to put an issue on the state ballot. B) The initiative petition has been an insignificant form of election. C) Twenty-four states currently allow voters to propose and decide legislation through an initiative petition. D) Initiative petitions are frequently the result of the actions of dedicated individuals, or policy entrepreneurs. E) Citizens can use the initiative process to force decisions on issues that state legislatures have failed to act on or address. 18) In order to qualify to be put on the ballot, initiative petitions usually require signatures equal to about A) a minimum of 500 signatures. B) 10 percent of registered voters. C) 10 percent of the number of voters from the previous elections. D) 10 percent of eligible voters. E) 10 percent of the entire populations. 19) Which of the following does NOT characterize presidential elections around 1800? A) Most of the campaigning was done by state and local party organizations. B) The candidates barnstormed the country campaigning and giving speeches. C) Newspaper coverage of the campaign was extremely biased and dishonest. D) Campaigns were directed at state legislators, not the voters. E) All of these describe the pathetic, sordid, sorry state of early American elections-we’ve come a long way, baby! 21) Who became president with the election of 1800? A) John Adams B) Thomas Jefferson C) George Washington D) Aaron Burr E) James Madison 22) Which of the following statements about the 1800 presidential election is TRUE? A) The candidates in the 1800 election vigorously campaigned in each of the states. B) The 1800 election was ultimately decided in the House of Representatives. C) The 1800 election was the first one in which the candidates were chosen by party conventions. D) For the first time the focus of the 1800 election was on the citizen voters. E) All of the above. 24) In the original constitutional system, A) the president, once elected by the Electoral College, chose the vice president. B) the Senate elected the president and the House of Representatives elected the vice president. C) each presidential elector cast two ballots and the top vote-getter was named president and the runner-up became vice president. D) the state legislatures elected the president and vice president, with the candidate getting the second most votes becoming vice president. E) each presidential elector cast one ballot for one of the president/vice president teams running. 25) Which of the following is TRUE of the presidential election of 1800? A) It was a gentlemanly contest in which partisans on both sides showed respect for the opposition. B) The candidates traveled throughout the smaller number of United States at the time to campaign for votes. C) It was carefully and objectively covered in the newspapers of the day, with logical reasoning and respect for both candidates in articles and editorials. D) It was the first peaceful transfer of power between parties via the electoral process in the history of the world. E) All of the above 27) The issue of free silver (to increase the amount of currency in circulation) was championed in the election of 1896 by ________, whose most famous oration was his “Cross of Gold speech at the Democratic national convention. A) Theodore Roosevelt B) William McKinley C) Grover Cleveland D) Woodrow Wilson E) William Jennings Bryan 28) Which of these groups did NOT support William Jennings Bryan in 1896? A) Eastern manufacturers B) White southerners C) Rural doctors D) Westerners in the silver-producing states E) All of the groups supported William Jennings Bryan in 1896. 29) The winner of the presidential election of 1896 was A) Grover Cleveland. B) Ulysses Grant. C) Theodore Roosevelt. D) William McKinley. E) William Jennings Bryan. 30) Who traveled through 26 states and logged 18,000 miles in his campaign for president? A) William Jennings Bryan B) Grover Cleveland C) William McKinley D) John Adams E) Thomas Jefferson  31) The election of 2000 hinged on who had won Pennsylvania Florida Ohio Tennessee New York 32) Because Bush’s lead over Gore in the initial count was less than one-tenth of one percent, Florida law mandated The secretary of state to certify the results. The outcome of the election be determined by the Florida Supreme Court. A thirty-day extension for absentee ballots That the Florida state legislature vote to declare Bush the winner. An automatic recount 35) Which of the following statements is TRUE? Despite Winning the 2000 election by the narrowest of margins, Bush governed boldly and made many decisions that reshaped the American public policy. The Bush Doctrine advocates striking potential enemies first. The first four years of the bush presidency were timid and cautious in their approach. Both A and B None of the above 36) According to exit polls, _____ was a major reason voters selected Bush in 2004. The war on terrorism Welfare reform Strategic voting Health care reform Freedom of speech 38) In the 2004 election, John Kerry won votes among those most concerned with A) the economy, health care, and education. B) the fairness of the tax system. C) the environment, the economy, and transportation issues. D) civil rights, the environment, and the economy. E) the environment and urban affairs.   40) Suffrage means A) voting for the winner. B) the struggle for equal rights for women. C) turning out to vote. D) the right to vote. E) voting for the loser.   42) As the right to vote has been extended, A) voter turnout has increased proportionally. B) proportionally fewer of those eligible have chosen to vote. C) the scope of American government has shrunk. D) the number of candidates running for office has increased. E) voter turnout has actually remained about the same.   43) Which of the following groups was eligible to vote in 1800? A) Women B) Property owning males over the age of 21 C) Anyone over the age of 18 D) African Americans E) White male and female property owners  52) If you believe that “public officials don’t care much about what people like me think,”      than you are expressing feelings of     A) rationality.     B) policy voting.     C) high political efficacy.     D) low political efficacy.     E) retrospective voting. 53) The belief that ordinary people can influence the government known as                               A) rational behavior.     B) class-based voting.     C) partisan identification.     D) civic duty.     E) political efficacy. 54) If you believe that citizens should vote in order to support democratic government         than you believe in     A) political voting.     B) political efficacy.     C) rationality.     D) suffrage.     E) civic duty. 55) Largely to prevent corruption associated with stuffing ballot boxes, states adopted         ______ around the turn of the twentieth century.     A) primary elections.     B) the secret ballot.     C) the Electoral College.     D) voter registration.     E) voting machines. 57) A major reason cited for America’s level of voter turnout compared to other industrial nations is?     A) bad weather in certain parts of the United States on election day.     B) registration is more cumbersome in the United States.     C) registration is more cumbersome in other nations.     D) greater interest in democracy in the United States.     E) Americans’ high sense of political efficacy      58) Compared to other industrialized democracies, the United States has a _____ voter turnout. A) Slightly higher B) Slightly Lower C) Rising D) Much lower E) Much higher   59) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Unlike the United States, the governments of most democracies take the responsibility of seeing to it that all of their eligible citizens are on the voting lists. B) Americans are expected to vote for a much narrower range of political offers than most democracies. C) The choice offered Americans at elections is not as great as in other democracies. D) American government asks citizens to vote far more often than most democracies. E) None of the above.   60) Which of the following is FALSE? A) The Motor Voter Act allows eligible voters to register by checking a box on their driver’s license application. B) Congress requires voter registration nationwide. C) Some states let you register at supermarkets. D) In North Dakota, you don’t have to register to vote. E) In a few states, you can register to vote on Election Day.   61) Among the states that allow voter registration at the polls on Election Day, voter turnout rates are A) No different than in other states. B) Lower than the national average. C) Declining over time and at a higher rate than in other states. D) Impossible to compute. E) Higher than in other states.   62) Approximately how many states allow voters to register at the polls on Election Day? A) 44  B) 34  C) 49  D) 14  E) 6   63) The Motor Voter Act of 1993 A) Requires states to register individuals to vote when they apply for, or renew, their driver’s license. B) Requires the federal government to register individuals to vote when they apply for or renew their driver’s license. C) Requires states to provide transportation for citizens who are unable to get to the polls on their own efforts. D) Requires states to mail voter registration forms to all individuals holding driver’s license. E) Established drive-in polling places to make voting more convenient and increase voter turnout.   64) The impact of the Motor Voter Act of 1993 was evidenced in A) Higher registration and higher turnout in 1996 and 2000. B) Lower registration and higher turnout in 1996 and 2000. C) No changes in either registration or turnout in 1996 and 2000. D) Higher registration and lower turnout in 1996 and 2000. E) None of the above. 66) The group of people with the lowest voter turnout rate is A) senior citizens over 70. B) women. C) college graduates. D) young people. E) union members. 67) Highly educated individuals are more likely to vote because A) most of them are white males. B) they see more policy differences between candidates. C) they have more influence. D) they are smarter. E) they have a lower sense of political efficacy. 69) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Just over one-half of the population votes. B) Older people are less likely than younger people to vote. C) African Americans are less likely than Whites to vote because of income differences. D) Americans’ voter participation rate is far lower than voter turnout in other democracy. E) People with higher than average education levels have a higher voter participation rate. 78) Which of the following people is LEAST likely to vote in an election? A) A young man in his twenties without a college education. B) A union member in his sixties. C) A White woman who has lived at the same address for a long time. D) The college-educated daughter of a union member. E) A married woman in her forties. 80) Which of the following is TRUE about the Electoral College? A) An elector has never voted differently from the popular vote winner of his state. B) It is scheduled to be phased out in 2009, though some still argue its usefulness and want to rescind the phase-out. C) On very rare occasions, an elector has voted differently from the popular vote winner of his state. (In 2004, an elector in Wisconsin voted for John Edwards instead of John Kerry.) D) It is used in nearly half of the democratic nations around the world. E) None of the above. 81) The Electoral College was originally established in order to A) merely certify the results of the people’s choice for president and vice president. B) provide direct election of the president by the people, although its operation has had the opposite effect. C) give the legitimacy to the presidency, which was regarded suspiciously by most people as another potential monarchy. D) give the nation’s elite the power to choose the president and vice president rather than the people directly. E) insure high voter turnouts in elections throughout the country. 82) As provided in the Constitution, how are electoral votes allocated for each state? A) Each state casts two electoral votes. B) Each state has as many electoral votes as it has members in the House of Representatives. C) Each state has as many electoral votes as it has members in both the House and the Senate. D) Each state has as many electoral votes as it has members in the Senate. E) Each state is proportioned to their population, which all states having at least one vote. 83) The Electoral College is important to the presidential election because it A) over-represents less populous states. B) may result in the election of a president who did not receive the most popular votes. C) introduces a bias into the campaign and electoral process. D) All of the above. E) None of the above. Answer Key 1)E 2)A 3)E 4)D 5)B 6)D 7)C 8)B 9)B 10)E 11)E 12)A 13)D 14)B 15)E 16)B 17)B 18)C 19)B 20)D 21)B 22)B 23)D 24)C 25)D 26)A 27)E 28)A 29)D 30)A 31)B 32)E 33)D 34)E 35)D 36)A 37)E 38)A 39)E 40)D 41)A 42)B 43)B 44)C 45)C 46)D 47)E 48)B 49)E 50)E 51)C 52)D 53)E 54)E 55)D 56)A 57)B 58)D 59)B 60)B 61)E 62)E 63)A 64)D 65)A 66)D 67)B 68)C 69)B 70)B 71)E 72)E 73)D 74)A 75)C 76)D 77)D 78)A 79)E 80)C 81)D 82)C 83)D 84)C 85)A Chapter 10 1) A(n) _____ is a party’s official selection of a candidate to run for office. A) Nomination B) Imprimatur C) Conversion D) Appointment E) Endorsement 3) The way in which candidates attempt to manipulate money, the media, and momentum to achieve the nomination is through A) Campaign strategy B) Propaganda C) Charisma D) Party support E) Primaries 5) Who said, “The question is not whether I can get elected. The question is whether I can be elected and not be nuts when I get there?” A) Walter Mondale B) John Kerry C) Richard Nixon D) Mitt Romney E) John McCain 6) Which of the following is NOT a key element of campaign strategy? A) Media attention B) Mediocrity C) Momentum D) Money E) None of the above 14) Caucuses are usually organized like A) winner-take-all election system B) bi-legislatures C) pyramids D) the original Constitutional Convention E) the Electoral College 15) In states with caucuses, A) supporters of candidates try to get elected as delegates through a pyramid of meetings. B) candidates appoint supporters to serve as delegates. C) party leaders select delegates according to their own candidates preferences. D) the state legislature selects the states delegates to the national conventions. E) in most states, caucuses or interested party voters are held to begin the delegate selection process; only a small percentage of party voters attend, but it is open. 16) Which of the following is TRUE about presidential nomination process?(especially for the democratic party) A) In most states, it is the party leadership that that chooses the delegates, and ordinary party voters have no say. B) Although caucuses or presidential primaries are held in all states, these are mere beauty contests; convention delegates are chosen earlier by party officials who are uninterested in the opinions of party voters. C) Presidential candidates are chosen by their party's senators and representatives in Congress. D) In most states, presidential primaries are held with the national convention delegates allocated to each candidate in rough proximity to their percentage of popular vote. E) In most states, caucuses of interested party voters are held to begin the delegate selection process; only a small percentage of party voters attend, but it its open. 17) Today, state presidential caucuses are A) small meetings of the party's county leaders held to select national convention delegates with no other input. B) open to all registered party voters, or those who claim party allegiance in states with no party registration. C) open only to party activists who have spent a designated amount of time on behalf of the party or its candidates. D) special meetings of states party leaders who elect their state's delegates to national convention. E) held in most states in order to select national convention delegates. 18) Precinct-level presidential caucuses A) have absolutely nothing to do with choosing delegates to the major parties 'national nominating conventions. B) determine how many votes that state will cast for each of the presidential candidates at the national convention. C) choose delegates to county caucuses/conventions where delegates to the state convention are selected, then the state convention chooses national convention delegates. D) directly chose national convention delegates. E) choose delegates to state conventions where delegates to national convention are selected. 26) The McGovern-Fraser Commission made the delegate selection process of the Democratic party more democratic by A) increasing the number of delegates chosen. B) weakening the power of party leaders to choose convention delegates. C) encouraging the use of presidential caucuses rather than primaries. D) giving the power of selecting delegates to party officials. E) None of the above   27) The addition of superdelegates to the Democratic national conventions was spearheaded by A) the Warren Commission. B) those who felt the McGovern-Fraser Commission had opened up the delegate section. C) those who felt the Warren Commission had led to unrepresentative delegate selection. D) the McGovern-Fraser Comission. E) President Jimmy Carter.   28) Which of the following was NOT a reason for the Democratic Party adding superdelegates to its national nominating conventions? A) The feeling that earlier reforms had given too little say to the party’s state and national leaders, with disastrous election results. B) The insistence of the McGovern-Fraser Commission to have superdelegates play a  major veto-like role. C) The need for establishing a “peer review” to the process with input from politicians  who often know the candidates best. D) The sense that party insiders and elected officials would be more likely to support the  most electable candidate. E) None of the above.   29) The work of the McGovern-Fraser Commission appointed during the turbulent Chicago Convention of 1968 was a reflection of concern over A) the declining strength of Democratic power in Congress and state governorships. B) the Republicans’ image as a party of efficiency. C) elite control of the party. D) Richard Nixon’s growing popularity and the fear that he could defeat the Democratic  nominee in the fall. E) the catastrophic defeat of Goldwater in 1964.   30) National party leaders who automatically get a delegate slot at the Democratic national party convention are called A) superdelegates. B) campaign counsels. C) party bosses. D) caucus chairmen. E) press secretaries. 37) Which of the following statements about the New Hampshire presidential primary is FALSE? A) New Hampshire holds the first presidential primary of the year. B) All the presidential candidates spend considerable time in New Hampshire prior to primary      day. C) There is tremendous media coverage of the New Hampshire primary. D) Considerable amounts of money and time is spent on politicking in New Hampshire prior to      the primary. E) None of the above.   39) The “big mo” refers to A) the overwhelming need for money in a presidential campaign. B) achieving momentum in the nomination campaign. C) the importance of the Missouri primary in the presidential nomination campaign. D) the path-breaking presidential campaign of Morris “Mo” Udall. E) the moment in which a candidate receives enough delegates to receive the nomination.   40) Approximately    of eligible voters cast ballots in presidential primaries. A) 65 percent B) 50 percent C) 35 percent D) 25 percent E) 75 percent   41) Voters in presidential primaries and caucuses tend to be A) very similar to the rest of the United States population in terms of education and income. B) minorities and notably younger than the general population. C) somewhat less educated and somewhat poorer on average than the United States population as      a whole. D) far less educated and much poorer on average than the United States population as a whole. E) older and more affluent than the United States population as a whole.   42) In most caucus states, about   of the registered voters typically show up for party presidential       caucuses. 50 percent 35 percent 20 percent 60 percent 5 percent 46) Critics of primaries and caucuses contend that the presidential “kingmakers” are now A) Party bosses B) state party Organizations C) interest groups D) the few who vote in the caucuses and primaries E) the media 47) Proponents of a national primary argue that it would A) equalize the relative weight of voters across the state B) shorten the length of the campaign C) increase public understanding of the issues at stake in the nomination contest D) simplify the nomination process E) all of the above 48) Which of the following is NOT an idea proposed to help reform the primary system? A) create a regional party B) create a strategy where people would vote with their time zones C) create a national primary D) Create a Primary system where the states’ population is a factor in determining when the population will vote E) create a situation where politicians find it easier to take time off to run again 49) Critics of a national primary argue that A) obscure candidates would receive too much of an advantage B) the media would have little impact C) the campaign would be lengthened D) no candidate would receive a majority, thus run – off election would be needed E) all of the above 50) Presidential nominating conventions have not required more than one ballot to choose the party's official since 1952, largely due to the A) end of the boss-dominated caucus system B) role of television, and the desire of both parties to unite behind one candidate in advance in order to present a show of harmony, rather than bickering, to those who tune in. C) rule change that a candidate need only win a plurality of votes at the convention rather than a majority to gain nominations. D) changes in party rules requiring a nomination on the first ballot E) changes in federal law requiring parties to have their nominations virtually assured before the conventions begin 51) Network television news coverage of national party conventions has A) dramatically increased in response to the growing significance of national conventions in selecting presidential and vice presidential candidates B) dramatically decreased in response to the growing significance of national conventions in selecting presidential and vice presidential candidates C) experienced audiences that pale in comparison to the size of audiences for popular shows, such as American Idol D) experienced drastically larger audiences than news coverage of national party conventions in earlier decades E) both B and C 52) A political party's statement of its goals and policies for the next for years is called a A) world view B) ideology C) party platform D) partisan position E) candidate scorecard 53) The final major event of each party's national convention, during the last hour or so on the fourth and final night. is the A) keynote speech B) roll-call vote for the presidential nomination C) acceptance speech by the presidential candidate D) adoption of the party platform E) inaugural ball and the champagne party to honor the new nominee 54) Thomas Patterson's argument that "today's presidential campaign is essentially a mass media campaign"," suggests that A) the media exercise sway over a vast number of citizens votes B) the media control electoral outcomes C) voters have very little reality of the campaign apart from what they see and hear in the media campaign D) money is less important to campaigns than it was in the past E) campaigns are larger, and reach a wider audience then campaigns in the past 61.) Which of the following did the Federal Election Campaign Act NOT do? A. Require disclosure of campaign contributions by all candidates for federal offices B . Provide Public financing of House and Senate races C. Provide public financing for the presidential nominees of both major parties D. Provide public financing of Senate races E. Limit presidential campaign spending 55. Providing select information and a request for money to list of people who have supported candidates of similar views in the past is a frequently used political technique known as A. soft money. B. direct mail. C. conversion. D. fundraising.  E. caucusing.   56. The member of a presidential campaign who deals with federal regulation of campaign financing and compliance with all campaign laws is the A. pollster. B. campaign manager. C. campaign consultant. D. press secretary. E. campaign counsel.   57. The member of a presidential campaign who helps reporters make their deadlines with stories that the campaign would like to see reported is the A. campaign counsel. B. press secretary. C. media consultant D. candidate. E. policy advisor.   58. Most political coverage by the media during a presidential campaign A. deals with the campaign game-who's ahead in the polls, what candidate strategies will be,  and speculation B. is the result of successful manipulation by the campaigns. C. deals with the candidates' personal character flaws and family. D. focuses on the substance of the key issues voters care about, and how the candidates stand on  them.  E. is analysis of the interest groups and campaign contributors who are backing each candidate,  and why they are backing them.   59. Which of the following presidential races was an exception to the rule that the media covers strategy more than issues? A. Clinton v. Dole, 1996. B. Bush v. Gore, 2000. C. Bush v. Kerry, 2004. D. Clinton v. Bush, 1992.  E. Bush v. Dukakis, 1992.   60. The Federal Election Campaign Act A. required broadcasters to provide free airtime to each major candidate for federal office. B. removed spending limits from presidential campaigns. C. provided public financing for Senate and House races. D. required all candidates for federal office to disclose all contributions made to their  campaigns.  E. ended public financing for presidential campaigns. 62.) Which of the following was the impetus behind Congress’s limiting individual contributions to presidential and congressional candidates to $1000? A. The discovery that military contractor’s employees contributed over $500,000 apeice to George W. Bush’s campaign B. the Supreme Court decisions, McConnell v. Federal Election Commission, that ruled against the McCain-Feingold Act C. Watergate D. The discovery that some individuals had contributed $1 million to the 1972 Nixon campaign E. The discovery that individuals with military contracts donated over $500,000 to Johnson’s 1968 campaign 63.) The administration of the campaign finance laws and the enforcement of the compliance with their requirements is handled by the A. Federal Election Commission B. Government Accounting Office C. Campaign Finance Bureau of the Department of the Treasury D. Fair Political Practices Commission E. Department of Justice 64.) In Buckley v. Valeo (1976), the Supreme Court A. declared the Federal Election Campaign Act unconstitutional B. limit the activities of Political Action Committees C. ruled that the wildly unequal campaign expenditures of candidates for government office were a violation of the equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment and ordered Congress and the states to develop mechanisms to assure equal funding for all major candidates. D. stated the Federal Election Commissions had no power to enforce compliance with their requirements. E. struck down the part of the Federal Election Campaign Act that restricted the amount individuals could contribute to their own campaign. 65.) Which of the following is permissible under current campaign finance regulations? A. Mitt Romney’s spending of $44 million out of his own pocket in pursuit of the Republican presidential nomination in 2008 B. Ross Perot’s spending of over $60 million of his own fortune on his independent bid for the presidency C. an individual contribution to a congressional candidate in the amount of $5,000 in the 2008 elections D. All of the above E. Both A and B 66) The funds allocated to public financing of presidential campaigns based on income tax check-offs Been eliminated by Congress Stayed at about the same level been ruled unconstitutional increased substantially decreased substantially 67) The Presidential Election Campaign Fund is distributed by the FEC to qualified candidates to subsidize their presidential campaigns garners only about 10 percent of American taxpayer’s participation consists of money collected from the $3 federal income tax check-off Both A and B All of the above 68) Contributions of up to $250 matched from the Presidential Election Campaign Fund qualifying presidential nominees are called Matching funds Tax cuts Hard money Illicit expenditures Soft money 69) Soft money is Money loaned to a campaign, but expected to be paid back Small donations that, while important to a campaign, are not important as larger contributions Cash contributions that are not traceable and in some situations illegal Money donated by a person to his or her own campaign Money donated to parties rather than candidates, thus not subject to contribution or spending limits 70) The appearance and increase in ______was an unintended result of an amendment in 1979 to the original Campaign Reform Act, which allows parties to raise and spend money on voter registration and other campaign materials without limits on spending or the size of contributions that they can accept Party expenditure exemption Party discretionary funding Institutional assistance Soft money Expenditure waivers 71) Donating $200,000 to a political party to help its presidential nominee in somewhat indirect ways is Legal, and known as a PAC contribution Illegal under the McCain-Feingold act Legal, known as soft money Illegal under the Federal Election Campaign Act (FECA) Of unclear legality and the subject of a controversial and vague Supreme Court ruling 72) One of the provisions of the McCain- Feingold Act of 2002 was to A) increases the amount of federal money presidential candidates can spend. B) increases the limit on “soft money” contributions. C) increases the limit on individual contributions from $1,000 to $2,000. D) increases the limit on individual contributions to $5,000. E) increases the limit on individual contributions to $10,000. 73) Which of these is NOT one of the provisions of the McCain- Feingold Act? A) The increasing of the amount the individuals can give to candidates, to rise with inflation B) the banning of soft money contributions C) The barring of groups from running “issue ads” within 60 days of an election if they refer to a federal candidate are not funded through a PAC D) The subjecting of 527 groups to contribution restrictions 74) Which of the following is an example of a 527 group? A) EggPac B) MoveOn.org C) The Democratic Party of New Hampshire D) The Republican Party of Iowa E) John Kerry.com 75) Which of the following is NOT an example of a 527 group? A) Swift Boat Veterans for Truth B) MoveOn.org C) The Republican Party D) The Democratic Party E) Both C and D 76) Defenders of PACs point out that they A) have been very effective at enforcing campaign reform laws and reducing unethical campaign practices. B) give most of their money to challengers. C) can politically buy votes. D) are limited to contributing only $1,000 per candidate. E) tend to support those who agree with them in the first place. 79) The notion that all candidates need to raise and spend enough money to compete but that is not always necessary to outspend the opponent is called the soft money approach. majority-minority doctrine. doctrine of sufficiency. selective perception. hydraulic theory of money and politics. Most people pay little attention to campaigns, and are as unfamiliar with the names of the incumbents, as with the names of the challengers. and do not care about party identification. but are quite subject to having their minds changed by a strong campaign. and have a selective perception about the events and candidates. All of these are true. Which of the following statements is FALSE? In tight races, a good campaign can make the difference between winning and losing. Most people pay relatively little attention to campaigns. Campaigns never change voter’s minds. Incumbents start with a substantial advantage in terms of name and recognition and an established track record. Party identification influences voting behavior regardless of what happens in campaigns. To secure votes from each region and state of the country, presidential candidates avoid talking about local issues. promise to reduce government programs and spending. end up supporting a variety of local interests. develop a national policy platform. show their support for local candidates. Which of the following is NOT a concern about modern campaigns and elections? The system’s burdens of fundraising are very high. The burdens of modern campaigns discourage many good candidates from ever running. Voters become overwhelmed by the process and simply sit on the sidelines. The electoral process is a “permanent campaign”. None of the above; all are concerns. 1) A 2) C 3) A 4) D 5) A 6) B 7) B 8) D 9) E 10) D 11) B 12) C 13) C 14) C 15) A 16) D 17) B 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) B 22) D 23) B 24) D 25) A 26) E 27) B 28) B 29) C 30) A 31) D 32) D 33) B 34) D 35) A 36) B 37) E 38) D 39) B 40) D 41) E 42) E 43) D 44) D 45) D 46) E 47) E 48) E 49) D 50) B 51) E 52) C 53) C 54) C 55) B 56) E 57) B 58) A 59) C 60) D 61) B 62) D 63) A 64) E 65) E 66) E 67) E 68) A 69) E 70) D 71) B 72) C 73) D 74) B 75) B 76) E 77) E 78) E 79) C 80) E 81) D 82) C 83) C 84) E 85) D