GMAT Full Test-1 From 1999-2000.docx

The following is a full GMAT that was used in the United States in 1999 and 2000. Analytical Writing Assessment On the CAT version, you will keyboard your essay. For this exercise, allow yourself three sides of regular 8.5 x 11 inch paper for each essay response. I. Analysis of an Issue. Time: 30 minutes Directions: In this section you will have 30 minutes to analyze and explain your views on the topic presented below. Read the statement and directions carefully. Write only on the topic given. An essay on a topic other than the one assigned will automatically be assigned a grade of 0. Many electronics manufacturers intentionally create computers that will become obsolete within a few years. Consumer groups complain that this practice results in a waste of resources. Computer-makers claim that by shortening the product life cycle, they can quickly improve their products, incorporate rapidly-advancing technologies and ultimately lower the cost to the consumer. Which position do you find more compelling? Explain your position using reasons and/or examples drawn from your personal experience, observations or readings. II. Analysis of an Argument. Time: 30 minutes Directions: In this section you will have 30 minutes to write a critique of the argument presented below. Read the argument and directions carefully. Write only on the topic given. An essay on a topic other than the one assigned will automatically be assigned a grade of 0. The food service workers in our fast food restaurants supervise the ordering, preparation and serving of breakfast, lunch and dinner to people of all ages. The federal government should implement a program of continuing education for these people. If food service workers were required to attend a three-day workshop each year, covering topics such as recent developments in nutritional theory and new methods of food preservation, as a condition of employment, the quality of the food eaten by the general public would be greatly improved. How persuasive do you find this argument? Explain your point of view by analyzing the line of reasoning an the use of evidence in the argument. Discuss also, what, if any thing, would make the argument more persuasive or would help you better to evaluate its conclusion. Verbal Section 41 Questions 75 Minutes Directions: For each of the following questions, blacken the oval next to the correct answer. To simulate the experience of taking the CAT, answer each question in order. Do not skip any questions, and do not go back to any questions you have already answered. For Sentence Correction Questions: In questions of this type, either part or all of a sentence is underlined. The sentence is followed by five ways of writing the underlined part. Answer Choice (A), repeats the original; the other choices vary. If you think the original phrasing is the best, choose (A). If you think one of the other answer choices is the best, select that choice. Sentence correction questions test your ability to recognize correct and effective expression. Follow the requirements of Standard Written English: grammar, choice of words, and sentence construction. Choose the answer that results in the clearest, most exact sentence, but does not change the meaning of the original sentence. Blacken the oval next to your choice. Example: The possibility of Category 5 hurricanes are regarded by most area residents with a mixture of skepticism and caution. (A) are regarded by most are residents with (B) is regarded by most are residents with (C) is regarded by most are residents as (D) is mostly regarded by area residents with (E) by most area residents is regarded with Correct Answer: B For Critical Reasoning questions: Questions of this type ask you to analyze and evaluate the reasoning in short paragraphs or passages. For some questions, all of the answer choices may conceivably be answers to the question asked. You should select the BEST answer to the question, that is, an answer that does not require you to make assumptions that violate common sense standards by being implausible, redundant, irrelevant or inconsistent. After choosing the best answer, blacken the oval next to your choice. Example: In an extensive study of the reading habits of subscribers, it was found that an average of four and five people actually read each copy of the most popular daily business journal. On this basis, we estimate that the 10,000 copies of Business Tonight that are sold each day are actually read by 50,000 to 60,000 people. The estimate above assumes that: (A) individual periodical readers generally enjoy more than one type of periodical (B) most of the readers of Business Tonight subscribe to the periodical (C) the ratio of readers to copies is the same for Business Tonight as for the weekly news periodical (D) the number of readers of the weekly news periodical is similar to the number of readers for Business Tonight (E) most readers enjoy sharing copies of their favorite periodicals with friends and family members Correct Answer: C For Reading Comprehension questions: Each passage is followed by questions or incomplete statements about the passage. Each statement or question is followed by lettered words or expressions. Select the word or expression that most satisfactorily completes each statement or answers each question in accordance with the meaning of the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the oval next to your choice. 1. Based on comprehensive longitudinal studies of accident prevention, several states have passed laws requiring children under the age of 18 to wear helmets when they roller blade. Yet a surprising result has been observed. Even though a large number of children wear helmets while roller skating, more head injuries than expected have been reported. This result persists, even though the studies have clearly shown that wearing a helmet reduces the incidence of head injuries. Which of the following statements, if true, best explains the unexpected finding? (A) A large number of parents are not complying with the law regarding helmets for their children (B) More children are roller skating now than when the helmet law was introduced (C) More accidents are reported now, in compliance with state insurance laws (D) Many children do not properly secure the helmet's chin strap, and the helmet does not work properly (E) Helmets were not designed to prevent all head injuries, so it is not surprising that they still occur 2. Because of widespread hurricane damage in Florida, the cost of a pound of tomatoes at the local fruit stand has increased 65%, while the cost of a pound of grapes has increased 25%. Therefore, tomatoes are now more expensive than grapes. The argument's reasoning is questionable because the argument fails to rule out the possibility that (A) before the storm, tomatoes had already been more expensive than grapes (B) tomatoes will fall back to their normal price more quickly than grapes will (C) before the storm, tomatoes had increased in price less than grapes (D) before the storm, grapes were significantly more expensive than tomatoes (E) consumers will reduce their purchases of tomatoes until the price falls to below that of grapes 3. Whenever it is rainy, Janet goes to the mall. Therefore, it must be rainy, because Janet just left for the mall. Which of the following exhibits a parallel pattern of reasoning as the argument above? (A) Everyone who is crazy about U2 went to the concert. Since Stacy did not go to the concert, she must not be crazy about U2. (B) Joe's Vinyl Shop shows a profit whenever the local stadium hires extra workers. Because the stadium has recently hired extra workers, Joe's Vinyl Shop will show a profit. (C) Cookies To Go has always endured an annual loss whenever the S&P 500 falls more than 15% in the preceding quarter. The company had an annual loss this year. Therefore, the S&P must have fallen more than 15% in the preceding quarter. (D) Whenever they eat too much candy, little children become hyper and very hard to control. Since little Cameron is behaving very well, she must not have eaten too much candy. (E) Every Thanksgiving, JC Penney gives away 20% discount coupons. I just got JC Penney discount coupons in the mail. Therefore, it must be Thanksgiving. 4. Rites of adulthood are more frequently found in societies where the differences between adults and children are not clear. The purpose of such rites is to formally impose adult responsibilities on participants. The above argument would be most strengthened if it were found that (A) children do not generally behave as adults prior to the rites (B) children generally accept the rites without question (C) adults generally approve of the rites (D) formal rites are prevalent in such societies (E) children do not generally accept adult responsibilities prior to the rites 5. The following notice was received by Jade Davis, an entrepreneur. "We regret that your press release cannot be accepted. Page limitations in theTimes force the editor to return many worthy and well-written press releases." All of the following may be inferred from the information above, EXCEPT (A) only well-written press releases were accepted for publication (B) Davis's press release was considered to be well-written (C) Davis's press release was found to be too long for theTimes (D) Davis's press release was considered to be worthy of publication (E) writing was not the only factor in deciding which press releases to publish 6. Some sociologists believe that religious sects such as the Quaker-based Quiet Ones, who believe the end of the world is imminent and seek to purify their souls by, among other things, abstaining completely from sexual relations, are a product of growing disaffection with modern, industrialized and urbanized living. As evidence, they cite the fact that there are no other active organizations of the same type which are more than 40 or 50 years old. The evidence, however, fails to support the conclusion for ______. Which of the following is the most logical completion for the passage? (A) the restrictions on sexual relations are such that the only source of new members is outside recruitment, so such sects tend to die out after a generation or two (B) it is simply not possible to gauge the intensity of religious fervor by the length of time the religious sect remains viable (C) the Quiet Ones group may actually survive beyond the second generation of its existence (D) there are other religious sects that emphasize group sexual activity which currently have several hundred members (E) the Quiet Ones are a Quaker-based organization and have no members in the Northeast, which is even more heavily urban and industrialized than Quaker country 7. Children in the first three grades who attend private schools spend each day working with a specialized trilingual tutor. Public schools have few such programs. Tests prove, however, that public school children are much weaker in reading skills when compared to their private school counterparts. We conclude, therefore, that public school children can be good readers only if they participate in a specialized trilingual tutor. The author's initial statements logically support his conclusion only if which of the following is also true? (A) All children can learn to be good readers if they are taught by a specialized trilingual tutor (B) All children can learn to read at the same rate if they participate in a specialized trilingual tutor. (C) Better reading skills produce better students (D) Specialized trilingual tutors are the critical factor in the better reading skills of private school students (E) Public school students can be taught better math skills Questions 8- 14 In his recent autobiography, Henry Kissinger made the distinction between what he called the Humanitarian method of developing economic policy, characteristic of Alexander Hamilton's approach to problems, and the scientific or analytical method, which is more familiar to modern economists. In the former, the center of attention lay in the economy as observed rather than in the idealized version of the economy considered as an abstraction. Hamilton also had an underlying model or paradigm for economic interactions, but his interest was in improving the existing underlying economic structure, in his own terms, rather than in evaluating the possible limitations of the structure as it might work ideally if organized on specific principles. Colin Powell suggested that critics of the free-enterprise system are seldom clear whether they object to the system because it does not work perfectly according to idealized principles or because it works in varying approximation to these principles. There is no such uncertainty with respect to Alexander Hamilton. He was critical of the economic order of his time because it did not work in accordance with the principles of free enterprise. He was not, and need not have been, overly concerned with some ultimate evaluation of an idealized structure. Hamilton's methodology has been seriously challenged by many modern scientists. The post-Revolutionary theory of welfare economics has largely, if not entirely, consisted of a search for conceptual flaws in the working of an idealized competitive economic order, conceived independently of the flawed and imperfect order that may be observed to exist. Partial correctives are offered in both the theory of the second-best and in the still-emerging theory of public choice, but the perfect-competition paradigm continues to dominate applied economic policy discussions. This methodological distinction is important in the examination of Hamilton's concept of free enterprise. In one sense, Calvin Coolidge's efforts in defining and delineating " a theory of free enterprise" are akin to those of the pre-Revolutionary economists who first described the idealized competitive economy. By contrast, Alexander Hamilton saw no need for defining in great detail the idealized operation of a market system and for evaluating this system in terms of strict efficiency criteria. Similarly, he saw no need for elaborating in detail a complete theory of free enterprise for defining those principles that must operate in a economy that would be considered free. In comparing Hamilton with Powell, therefore, we must somehow bridge the contrasting methodologies. We can infer from Hamilton's applied discussion of real problems what his idealized free enterprise might have embodied, or we can infer from Calvin Coolidge's treatment of idealized principles what his particular application of these might be in an institutional context. 8. Which of the following is most likely to be the next sentence of the passage? (A) Neither Coolidge nor Hamilton was successful in dealing with real problems. (B) Coolidge's "theory of free enterprise" is difficult to apply to questions of efficiency. (C) In what follows, both of these routes will be explored. (D) Since Hamilton planned a book on economic principles, there is a reason to develop his theory of free enterprise (E) The practical application of theories is guided by principles of natural free enterprise. 9. From the passage, what can be inferred regarding Alexander Hamilton's thoughts on the operation of the economy? (A) disinterested in achieving free enterprise (B) concerned with making improvements (C) eager to achieve perfection (D) not focused on efficiency (E) indifferent to economic constraints 10. The author's purpose in finding a bridge between the Coolidge and Hamilton methodologies is to (A) support their attempts to reform the economy (B) identify principles that each feels are just (C) explore their views toward an idealized market system (D) permit comparison of their concepts of free enterprise (E) facilitate understanding of their philosophies 11. According to the passage, all of the following are methods used to explain economic policy EXCEPT (A) the principles of free enterprise (B) the theory of welfare economics (C) the perfect-competition paradigm (D) the scientific method (E) the Humanitarian method 12. The author of the passage is presenting which of the following? (A) a recitation of methods of approaching economic problems (B) an exposition of various theories of free enterprise (C) an argument supporting idealized versions of economic order (D) an analysis of various economic systems (E) a comparison of the theories of Powell, Coolidge and Hamilton 13. Which of the following best describes the passage's objective? (A) supporting Coolidge's theory of free enterprise (B) analyzing the contrasting methodologies of Hamilton and Coolidge (C) comparing Hamilton's and Coolidge's views of a free economy (D) distinguishing between the Humanitarian and Revolutionary theories of free enterprise (E) supporting Hamilton's concept of free enterprise 14. According to the passage, Calvin Coolidge's "theory of free enterprise" is similar to the description of which of the following? (A) the pre-Revolutionary economy (B) the efficiency of the market system (C) the free-enterprise system (D) the idealized competitive economy (E) the economy considered as an abstraction 15. One way for reducing commuting time for those who work in the cities is to increase the speed at which traffic moves downtown. This can be accomplished by raising the tolls on the tunnels and bridges connecting the city with other communities. This will discourage auto traffic into the city and will encourage people to use public transportation instead. Which of the following, if true, would LEAST weaken the argument above? (A) Nearly all of the traffic in the center of the city is commercial traffic which will continue despite the toll increases (B) Some people now driving alone into the city would choose to car pool with each other rather than use public transportation (C) Any temporary improvement in traffic flow would be lost because the improvement itself would attract more cars (D) The numbers of commuters who would be deterred by the toll increases would be insignificant (E) The public transportation system is not able to handle any significant increase in the number of commuters using the system 16. The whimsical nature of the Monolothians of Middle Eastern history was thought to result from eating the narcotic in the cacao plant. But modern research with hamsters has shown that the smell of the cacao produces the lighthearted, dreamy condition that identified the cacao-eaters. This statement assumes that (A) it is the fragrance of the cacao that is addictive rather than the narcotic (B) the fragrance of the cacao enhances the narcotic effect (C) hamsters and humans are affected by the cacao fragrance in the same way (D) the effect produced by eating the cacao is greater than that produced by smelling it (E) eating the narcotic in the cacao has no effect on people 17. Recent highly visible court cases have led some legislators to question the very nature of specific inalienable constitutional rights. The First Amendment guarantees freedom of religion, allowing parents to decline medical care for their grievously ill children, due to religious beliefs. This often sparks debate. If a child can be saved with medical intervention, should the parents be legally bound to accept that treatment, despite religious convictions to the contrary? While freedom of religion is inherently good, it is a right that should be preserved according to specific preconditions. Which of the following represents the most logical continuation of the passage? (A) However, when discussing this issue, no one can accurately guess the intent of the authors of the constitution (B) Though, since we hold the truth of these rights to be self-evident, they cannot be questioned or compromised (C) Yet there will always be those who argue that this freedom must remain absolute to preserve the integrity of the Bill of Rights (D) Yet a defenseless child lacks the constitutional rights to intervene medically on its behalf (E) Clearly, the authors of the Bill of Rights did not anticipate future cases that would require specific protection for the rights of defenseless children 18. When it snows, Jana stays home; but it hasn't snowed recently, so Jana must not be home. Which of the following arguments is logically most similar to the one above? (A) When people complain about their health, they get old; but no one is complaining about their health, so no one must be getting old (B) When a town has health problems, so it must have many old people (C) When a town has people complaining about their health, it must also have old people; our town has many people complaining about their health, so it must have many old people (D) When people are old, they complain about their health; but our town has no health problems, so it must have no old people (E) When people are old, they complain about their health; but one can complain about one's health and yet not be old 19. In a national survey of over 25,000 respondents, the majority answered "no" to the question, "Should the government legalize marijuana use for high school students?" The survey results can be best criticized because the question structure (A) presented more than one issue to respondents (B) presented a choice that suggested a negative reply (C) presented respondents an impossible value judgment (D) presented an issue to largely unaffected respondents (E) presented a controversial issue out of context 20. Maya is a better poet than Michael and a better novelist, too. Thus, Maya is undoubtedly a better nonfiction writer as well. Given the information in the passage, which of the following is a belief about Maya that can be most justifiably attributed to the speaker? (A) Maya is more prolific than Michael (B) Maya is a better writer than Michael (C) Maya is a better communicator than Michael (D) Maya's literary skills are more cultivated than Michael (E) Maya is more artistically talented than Michael 21. Two business school students, Maya and Denise, received the same overall grade in only 1 of 4 classes. Each grade was on a scale of 1 to 10. From which of the following statements can one determine whose average overall grade was higher? (A) Maya graduated at the top of her class (B) Maya's lowest grade was less than or equal to Denise’s highest grade (C) Maya's highest grade and Denise’s lowest grade were in the same class (D) Maya scored higher than Denise in 2 areas and neither girl scored lower than 5 in any class (E) Denise received a grade of 10 in 3 classes and Maya did not score higher than 8 in any class 22. Dr. Philip, along with his four distinguished colleagues, are presenting their dynamic theory of neuron regeneration at symposiums in Athens. (A) Dr. Philip, along with his four distinguished colleagues, are (B) Dr. Philip, along with his four distinguished colleagues, is (C) Dr. Philip, in addition to his four distinguished colleagues, are (D) Dr. Philip, as well as his four distinguished colleagues, are (E) Dr. Philip and his four distinguished colleagues is 23. In comparison with the socially relevant documentaries produced by the Museum directors, Montreal's sociologists have produced nothing even remotely groundbreaking. (A) In comparison with the socially relevant documentaries produced by the Museum directors, Montreal's sociologists have produced nothing even remotely groundbreaking. (B) In comparison with the socially relevant documentaries produced by the Museum directors, the documentaries from Montreal's sociologists are containing nothing even remotely groundbreaking. (C) Compared to that of the Museum directors, Montreal's sociologists have produced nothing even remotely groundbreaking. (D) Compared to those produced by the Museum sociologists, the socially relevant documentaries of Montreal's sociologists are not even remotely groundbreaking. (E) Compared to the Museum socially relevant documentaries, Montreal's sociologists have produced nothing even remotely groundbreaking. 24. Having discovered the child prodigy John Klein to be suffering from attention deficit disorder (ADD), it is now thought that this was a major cause of his anger and recurrent clinical depression. (A) Having discovered the child prodigy John Klein to be suffering from attention deficit disorder (ADD), (B) To have discovered the child prodigy John Klein to be suffering from attention deficit disorder (ADD), (C) Since historians have discovered that the child prodigy John Klein suffered from attention deficit disorder (ADD), (D) Since the suffering of attention deficit disorder (ADD) by the child prodigy John Klein was discovered by historians, (E) Due to the fact that the child prodigy John Klein was suffering from attention deficit disorder (ADD) was discovered by historians, 25. In the early 1990s, voice recognition software was an anathema to most medical and legal transcriptionists; now, however, most medical and legal transcriptionists accept it as desirable. (A) to most medical and legal transcriptionists; now, however, most medical and legal transcriptionists accept it as desirable. (B) to most medical and legal transcriptionists, now, however, most medical and legal transcriptionists accept it. (C) to most medical and legal transcriptionists; now, however, most medical and legal transcriptionists are desirable of it. (D) to most medical and legal transcriptionists; now, however, most medical and legal transcriptionists accepted it as desirable. (E) to most medical and legal transcriptionists. Now, however, most medical and legal transcriptionists will accept it as desirable. 26. A recently discovered Native American artifact, preserved since approximately 1345 AD, has been determined to be composed of woven acrylic by a scientist, a fabric previously thought to have been invented 632 years later. (A) A recently discovered Native American artifact, preserved since approximately 1345 AD, has been determined to be composed of woven acrylic by a scientist, a fabric previously thought to have been invented 632 years later. (B) Preserved since approximately 1345 AD, a recently discovered Native American artifact had been recently determined by a scientist to be composed of woven acrylic, a fabric previously thought to be invented 632 years later. (C) A scientist had determined that a recently discovered Native American artifact is composed of woven acrylic, a fabric previously thought to be invented 632 years later, after having been preserved since approximately 1345 AD. (D) After being preserved since approximately 1345 AD, a scientist has determined that a recently discovered Native American artifact is composed of woven acrylic, a fabric previously thought to have been invented 632 years later. (E) A scientist has determined that a recently discovered Native American artifact, preserved since approximately 1345 AD, is composed of woven acrylic, a fabric previously thought to have been invented 632 years later. 27. Beaded wedding gowns are so expensive because the seamstress still pursues her art as they have for centuries, by hand-stringing each bead and then knotting each thread individually to achieve a secure attachment for each bead. (A) the seamstress still pursues her art as they have (B) the seamstress still pursues her art as she has (C) seamstresses still pursue their art as they have (D) seamstresses still pursue their art as was done (E) the seamstress still pursues her art as has been done 28. The recent volatility in the stock market and the fluctuation in the prime interest rate probably result from the Federal Reserve Bank's tight money policy and its effect on Federally Insured financial firms rather than to the drop in the overall rate of inflation (A) its effect on Federally Insured financial firms rather than to the drop in the overall (B) its affect on Federally Insured financial firms, as opposed to the drop in the overall (C) its effect on Federally Insured financial firms, rather than from the drop in the overall (D) its effect on Federally Insured financial firms rather than from the drop in the overall (E) the effect on Federally Insured financial firms, rather than to the drop in the overall Questions 29 - 35 In the UK the per capita cost of preventive health care has risen dramatically since the end of the Gulf War. But increased expenditures by both healthcare providers and the government have shown steadily declining results. Medical expenses concentrated on those above fifty-five have tripled several times over a period of twenty years with a resulting two percent increase in the life expectancy of British men. The increase in medical expenditures for children has produced even odder results; otherwise Tony Blair could not have been moved last session to promise that every child shall soon have the "Right to Basic Immunizations" before entering primary school. In the UK it would take twenty billion dollars per year to provide what experts regard as "standard" preventive health care for every man, woman and child. This is well over twice the $6 billion now being spent. Independent cost projections prepared at the University of London Medical School indicate that by 2008 the comparable figures will be $43 billion as against the $16 billion now projected, and these figures wholly omit the enormous costs of what is called "lifestyle risk factors," including alcohol consumption, smoking and use of illegal drugs, which are increasingly blamed for many highly expensive illnesses and injuries. The UK, which spent nearly three billion dollars in 1990 for defense, including its deployment in the Gulf War, is obviously unable to provide comprehensive medical care to its citizens. The Prime Minister's committee for the study of public health should ask not how to support such increasing costs, but how they can be avoided. Free preventive health care for all British citizens must be recognized as economically unfeasible. In Sweden, the amount of public money spent on medical care for each child between 1,000 and 1,500 times the amount spent on the median citizen in London. In the UK, the discrepancy is smaller, but the discrimination is keener. The richest citizens can afford private medical care for their children and help them to benefit from the expertise of international specialists. In addition, they obtain twenty times the per capita amount of public funds if this is compared with the per capita expenditure made on the children of the five percent who are poorest. The principal reasons for this are that rich children have a lower rate of infant mortality and a greater likelihood of obtaining recommended immunizations and of surviving typical childhood diseases. Medical care for the treatment of an ongoing illness is disproportionately more expensive than preventive care for an inherently healthy child. Clearly a public concern, most public hospitals in the UK depend heavily on tax-derived finances. Free preventive health care inevitably polarizes a society and ranks the nation according to an international caste system. Countries are rated like castes whose attitude toward medical care for its poor, a rating which is closely related to per capita gross national product. 29. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage? (A) Defense spending is sapping funds which would be better spent in medical care. (B) Free preventive health care must be avoided if the goal of care equality is to be realized. (C) The health care shortcomings of the UK, in contrast to those of Sweden, are merely the result of poor allocation of available resources. (D) Both medical care and education care are severely underfunded. (E) Free preventive health care does not and cannot provide equal medical care. 30. The author most likely would agree with which one of the following solutions to the problems presented by free preventive health care? (A) Medical care should not be free (B) Future spending should be capped. (C) Preventive health care should be readily available to all children in the UK (D) More money should be diverted to medical care for the poorest. (E) Countries should cooperate to establish common minimal preventive health care standards. 31. The author would most likely support which of the following directives? (A) programs targeted exclusively at poor or at-risk children (B) a pilot study based upon the model currently used in Sweden (C) no formal efforts by the government to provide free preventive health care (D) sliding-scale health care fees for all British citizens (E) preventive education programs to minimize the negative effects of "lifestyle risk factors" 32. By citing the amount of public money spent on medical care for Swedish children, the author implies that (A) equal medical care is possible in the UK but not in Sweden. (B) equal medical care for all children is an unrealistic ideal. (C) medical care is more expensive in Sweden than in the UK (D) underfunding of health care is a world-wide problem. (E) health care spending is more efficient in the UK 33. Which one of the following most accurately characterizes the author's attitude with respect to free preventive health care? (A) admiration (B) critical (C) resentful (D) neutral (E) ambivalent 34. Why does the author consider the results from increased medical care expenditures for children to be "even odder" than those for adults? (A) Health care spending has shown even poorer results, despite greater increases. (B) The "Right to Basic Immunizations" should be a bare minimum, not a governmental ideal. (C) Preventive health care has become even more discriminatory. (D) It inevitably polarizes society. (E) The aging of the population should have had an impact only on preventive medical care, not on medical expenses. 35. According to the first paragraph in the passage, the problems of free preventive medical care in the UK include all of the following EXCEPT: (A) It has reached a point of diminishing returns, increased spending no longer results in significant improvement. (B) It has an inappropriate "more is better" philosophy. (C) It is unfairly distributed between rich and poor. (D) The amount of money being spent on children is increasing. (E) Its cost has increased nearly as fast. 36. Anyone wishing to be considered for the position should send in their resumes before the deadline on October 10. (A) send in their resumes (B) send their resumes in (C) send in their resume (D) send their resume in (E) send in his resume 37. Knowing that the fire was prone to spreading, all the buildings were covered with flame resistant material. (A) Knowing that the fire was prone to spreading, (B) Having known that the fire was prone to spreading, (C) Sine the fire was known to be prone to spreading, (D) Since they knew that are fire was prone to spreading, (E) Being prone to spreading, 38. A compassionate veterinarian inquires not only about his patients' physical health, but about their caregiver's emotions too. (A) but about their caregiver's emotions health too. (B) but their caregiver's emotions health also (C) but he also requires about their caregiver's emotions (D) but also about their caregiver's emotions (E) but too about their caregiver's emotions 39. Because of his closed head injury, Dr. Connors has not and possibly never will be able to practice medicine again. (A) has not and possibly never will be able to practice (B) has not and possibly will never be able to practice (C) has not been and possibly never would be able to practice (D) has not and possibly never would be able to practice (E) has not been able to practice and possibly never will be able to practice 40. Depending on subtle suggestion, browbeating is seldom used in successful marriages. (A) Depending on subtle suggestion, browbeating is seldom used in successful marriages. (B) Browbeating is seldom used by marriage partners, who depend instead on subtle suggestion. (C) Subtle suggestion is depended on by marriage partners instead of browbeating. (D) Suggestion, which is more subtle, is used in place of argument by marriage partners. (E) Instead of browbeating, depending on suggestion is used by subtle marriage partners. 41. A plethora of studies by physicians, psychologists and exercise physiologists confirm that renewed vitality and improved performance are afforded by recreation to the body and to the mind. (A) renewed vitality and improved performance are afforded by recreation to the body and to the mind. (B) recreation affords renewed vitality and improved performance to the body and to the mind (C) there are afforded renewed vitality and improved performance to the body and to the mind (C) by recreation the body and mind are afforded renewed vitality and improved performance (E) the body and the mind afford renewed vitality and improved performance to themselves by recreation ANSWERS Verbal Section 1. D 10. D 19. B 28. D 37. C 2. D 11. B 20. B 29. E 38. D 3. C 12. A 21. B 30. A 39. E 4. E 13. C 22. B 31. C 40. B 5. E 14. D 23. D 32. B 41. B 6. A 15. B 24. C 33. B 7. D 16. C 25. A 34. B 8. C 17. C 26. E 35. C 9. B 18. A 27. C 36. E Quantitative Section 37 Questions 75 Minutes Directions: For each of the following questions, blacken the oval next to the correct answer. To simulate the experience of taking the CAT, answer each question in order. Do not skip any questions, and do not go back to any questions you have already answered. Numbers: All numbers used are real numbers. Figures: The diagrams and figures that accompany these questions are for the purpose of providing information useful in answering the questions. Unless it is stated that a specific figure is not drawn to scale, the diagrams and figures are drawn as accurately as possible. All figures are in a plane unless otherwise indicated. For Data Sufficiency questions: Each question is followed by two numbered facts. You are to determine whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question. Use the data given, plus your knowledge of math and everyday facts, to choose between the five possible answers. Blacken the oval next to your choice. Example: Which car, X or Y, uses more gas? (1) Car X uses 90 gallons per 500 mile trip (2) For the 500 mile trip, Car X uses 1.5 more gas than Y (A) statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient (B) statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient (C) both statements together are needed to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient (D) either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question (E) not enough facts are given to answer the question Correct Answer: B 1. How many positive integers less than 60 are equal to the product of a positive multiple of 5 and an even number? (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 9 (D) 10 (E) 11 2. If the arithmetic mean of x, y, and 7 is 13, what is the average of x + 3, y - 5, and 6? (A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 12 (E) 13 3) An auto body shop charges $30.00 for an oil change, oil filter and standard air filter, but $42.00 for an oil change, oil filter and deluxe air filter. If the deluxe air filter costs four times as much as the standard air filter, how much does the standard air filter cost? (A) $2.00 (B) $4.00 (C) $5.00 (D) $6.00 (E) $8.00 4) What was the value of the sales of Pioneer Computers in 1990? (1) The sales of Pioneer Computers increased by $250,000 each year from 1980 - 1990 (2) The value of the sales of Pioneer Computers doubled between 1980 and 1990 (A) statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient (B) statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient (C) both statements together are needed to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient (D) either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question (E) not enough facts are given to answer the question 5) If s is a two-digit number (so s = qp with q and p digits), what is the last digit p of s? (1) The number 3s is a three-digit number whose last digit is p (2) The digit p is less than 7 (A) statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient (B) statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient (C) both statements together are needed to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient (D) either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question (E) not enough facts are given to answer the question 6) An artist bought 10 canvasses for a total cost of $80. If she lost two of the canvasses, at what price would she have to sell each of the remaining canvasses to earn a total profit of 25% of her total cost? (A) $10.00 (B) $12.50 (C) $15.00 (D) $100.00 (E) $120.00 7) What positive number, when squared, is equal to the cube of the positive square root of 16? (A) 64 (B) 56 (C) 32 (D) 8 (E) 2 8) Is the integer y divisible by 3? (1) The last digit in y is 3 (2) y + 5 is divisible by 6 (A) statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient (B) statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient (C) both statements together are needed to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient (D) either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question (E) not enough facts are given to answer the question 9) Thirty six identical computers must be arranged in rows with the same number of computers in each row. Each row must contain at least three computers and there must be at least three rows. A row is parallel to the front of the room. How many different arrangements are possible? (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 (E) 10 10) How much material will it take to make an open cubical box with no top? (1) The area of the bottom of the box is 4 square feet (2) The volume of the box is 8 cubic feet (A) statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient (B) statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient (C) both statements together are needed to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient (D) either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question (E) not enough facts are given to answer the question 11) Are two triangles congruent? (1) Both triangles are right triangles. (2) Both triangles have the same perimeter. (A) statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient (B) statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient (C) both statements together are needed to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient (D) either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question (E) not enough facts are given to answer the question 12) If p, q and r are digits, is (p + q + r) a multiple of 9? (1) The three digit number pqr is a multiple of 9 (2) (p x q) + r is a multiple of 9 (A) statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient (B) statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient (C) both statements together are needed to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient (D) either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question (E) not enough facts are given to answer the question 13) If 2x + y = -8 and -4x + 2y = 16, what is the value of y? (A) -4 (B) -2 (C) 0 (D) 2 (E) 4 14) Jasmine has twice as many pairs of earrings as Maura. If Jasmine gives Maura 10 pairs of her earrings, she will have half as many pairs as Maura. How many pairs of earrings do Jasmine and Maura have together? (A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 40 (E) 60 15) A group of 40 technicians must be divided into smaller work groups. If each group will contain 3, 4 or 5 workers, what is the largest number of groups possible? (A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 13 (E) 14 16) A business school reduced its class size by 16%, but then increased it by 25% of the new amount. What was the net percent change in the size of the business school class? (A) a 5% decrease (B) a 9% decrease (C) a 5% increase (D) a 9% increase (E) no net change 17) If a group of five Democrats take 3 hours to write a proposal, how long will it take a group of 4 Republicans to write the same proposal? (1) A Republican writes at 2/3 the rate of a Democrat (2) 5 Democrats and 4 Republicans writing together will take 1 9/10 hours to finish the proposal (A) statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient (B) statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient (C) both statements together are needed to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient (D) either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question (E) not enough facts are given to answer the question 18) A DC-10 flies at P miles per hour from Atlanta to Boston. A 747 flies at Q miles per hour from Boston to Atlanta. Both planes take off at the same time. Which plane flies at a faster rate? Charleston is between Atlanta and Boston. (1) Charleston is closer to Atlanta than it is to Boston (2) The DC-10 flies over Charleston before the 747 (A) statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient (B) statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient (C) both statements together are needed to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient (D) either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question (E) not enough facts are given to answer the question 19) If a store owner sold a designer dress for $600, she would make a 20% profit. Instead, she sold it for a 40% loss. At what price was the dress sold? (A) $300 (B) $315 (C) $372 (D) $400 (E) $440 20) A supply of heating oil lasts for thirty days. If its use is increased by 50%, how many days would the same amount of heating oil last? (A) 15 (B) 20 (C) 25 (D) 30 (E) 45 21) Samantha drove a total of 700 miles on her vacation. If her car averages 35 miles per gallon of gas and gas cost an average of $1.25 per gallon, how much did she spend on gas during her vacation? (A) $17.50 (B) $25.00 (C) $35.00 (D) $70.00 (E) $250.00 22) If Jake gives Alex $5.00 and Alex gives Fiona $2.00, the three children will have the same amount of money. How much more money does Jake have than Alex? (A) $3.00 (B) $5.00 (C) $6.00 (D) $7.00 (E) $8.00 23) The angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 2:3:4. What is the degree measure of the smallest angle? (A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 45 (E) 60 24) The sum of five consecutive integers is 35. How many of the five consecutive integers are prime numbers? (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) 4 25) Jane's net worth is twice as much as Mike's. Mike's net worth is 60% of Bridget's. Diane's net worth is 50% of Laura's. Laura's net worth is 190% of Jane's. Which of these 5 people owns the least? (A) Bridget (B) Diane (C) Jane (D) Laura (E) Mike 26) Do the points P and Q lie on the same circle with center (0,0)? (1) The coordinates of point P are (2, 3). (2) The coordinates of point Q are (4, 1). (A) statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient (B) statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient (C) both statements together are needed to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient (D) either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question (E) not enough facts are given to answer the question 27) Did the price of a bushel of peanuts increase during every week of 1999? (1) The price of a bushel of peanuts was $1.50 on Jan 1, 1999 (2) The price of a bushel of peanuts was $23.00 on Jan 1, 2000 (A) statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient (B) statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient (C) both statements together are needed to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient (D) either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question (E) not enough facts are given to answer the question 28) If 8a = 6b and 3a = 0 then (A) a and b are equal (B) a =6 (C) b/a = 4/3 (D) a = 6 and b = 8 (E) a/b = 3/4 29) A matting two inches wide is placed around a photograph with dimensions 8 inches by 12 inches. What is the area of the matting (in square inches)? (A) 44 (B) 96 (C) 128 (D) 144 (E) 168 30) The length of each side of square A is increased by 100% to make square B. If the length of the side of square B is increased by 50% to make square C, by what percent is the area of square C greater than the sum of the areas of squares A and B? (A) 75% (B) 80% (C) 100% (D) 150% (E) 180% 31) What is the volume of rectangular box S? (1) The total surface area of S is 22. (2) The rectangular box S is a cube (A) statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient (B) statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient (C) both statements together are needed to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient (D) either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question (E) not enough facts are given to answer the question 32) A CD was initially listed at a price that would have given the store a profit of 20% of the wholesale cost. What was the wholesale cost of the CD? (1) After reducing the asking price by 10%, the CD sold for a net profit of $10.00 (2) The CD sold for $50.00 (A) statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient (B) statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient (C) both statements together are needed to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient (D) either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question (E) not enough facts are given to answer the question 33) Suppose 3p + 4q = 11. What is the value of q? (1) p is prime (2) q = -2p (A) statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient (B) statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient (C) both statements together are needed to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient (D) either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question (E) not enough facts are given to answer the question 34) A cube and a rectangular solid are equal in volume. If the lengths of the edges of the rectangular solid are 4, 8 and 16, what is the length of an edge of the cube? (A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 12 (D) 16 (E) 64 35) Square ABCD is graphed in the standard coordinate plane. If the (x,y) coordinates of points A, B and C are (2, 1), (1, 2) and (2, 3), respectively, what are the coordinates of point D? (A) (3, 1) (B) (3, 2) (C) (3, 3) (D) (1, 3) (E) (1, 4) 36) Jason traveled from Chicago to Milwaukee in 30 minutes. What was the average speed of Jason's car? (1) Half the distance of the trip was traveled at 50 miles per hour, and the other half of the distance was traveled at 60 miles per hour (2) Jason traveled 30 miles on his trip (A) statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient (B) statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient (C) both statements together are needed to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient (D) either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question (E) not enough facts are given to answer the question 37) Let * denote a mathematical operation. Is it true that x * y = y * x for all x and y? (1) x * y = 1/x + 1/y (2) x * y = x - y (A) statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient (B) statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient (C) both statements together are needed to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient (D) either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question (E) not enough facts are given to answer the question ANSWERS Quantitative Section 1. A 10. D 19. A 28. A 2. D 11. E 20. B 29. B 3. B 12. A 21. B 30. B 4. C 13. C 22. E 31. C 5. E 14. C 23. C 32. A 6. B 15. D 24. C 33. B 7. D 16. C 25. E 34. B 8. B 17. D 26. C 35. B 9. C 18. E 27. E 36. D 37. D Predicting Your Actual GMAT Score To predict your actual GMAT scores from this test, count the number of correct answers in each section and locate that number in the left column of the chart below. The corresponding number in the right column represents an approximation of your GMAT test score. For all data, C = Correct, S = Score Verbal Subscore Quantitative Subscore GMAT Score C S C S C S 41 60 37 60 78 800 40 60 36 60 77 800 39 58 35 58 76 800 38 56 34 56 75 790 37 54 33 54 74 780 36 52 32 52 73 770 35 50 31 50 72 760 34 48 30 48 71 750 33 46 29 46 70 740 32 44 28 44 69 730 31 42 27 42 68 720 30 40 26 40 67 710 29 38 25 38 66 700 28 36 24 36 65 690 27 34 23 34 64 680 26 32 22 32 63 670 25 30 21 30 62 660 24 28 20 28 61 650 23 26 19 26 60 640 22 24 18 24 59 630 21 22 17 22 58 620 20 20 16 20 57 610 19 18 15 18 56 600 18 16 14 16 55 590 17 14 13 14 54 580 16 12 12 12 53 570 15 10 11 10 52 560 14 8 10 8 51 550 13 6 9 6 50 540 12 4 8 4 49 530 11 2 7 2 48 520 10 0 6 0 47 510 9 0 5 0 46 500 8 0 4 0 45 490 7 0 3 0 44 480 6 0 2 0 43 470 5 0 1 0 42 460 4 0 0 0 41 450 3 0 40 440 2 0 39 430 1 0 38 420 0 0 37 410 36 400 35 390 34 380 33 370 32 360 31 350 30 340 29 330 28 320 27 310 26 300 25 290 24 280 23 270 22 260 21 250 20 240 19 230 18 220 17 210 16 200 15 200 14 200 13 200 12 200 11 200 10 200 9 200 8 200 7 200 6 200 5 200 4 200 3 200 2 200 1 200 0 200