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ali8 ali8
wrote...
Posts: 5
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10 years ago
It is well known that Jewish people have a high level of iq (whether this relates to "intelligence" or not is another matter). This kind of high iq is, according to some theories, a result of natural selection in light of the difficulties that the Jews faced in their history.

On the other hand, other races also have high iq persons although the ratio is much less.

Consider a bright white person, who has a very high iq. Consider a Jewish person with the same iq.

My question: assume that in general 50% of iq is heritable. is this ratio bound to be the same for both the children of the bright white person and those of the Jewish person? What I am thinking of, is that the normal person's high iq is sort of a mutation, so it is less likely to be heritable, while that of the Jewish person is not a mutation, so it is more likely to be heritable.

What do you think?

p.s. no racism is intended at all, I am merely looking for a scientific answer.
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wrote...
Educator
10 years ago
Hey there,

What I am thinking of, is that the normal person's high iq is sort of a mutation, so it is less likely to be heritable,

Why wouldn't it be heritable?
ali8 Author
wrote...
10 years ago
Because when l look at very intelligent people, it is not always true that their children are as highly intelligent. For example, Paul Dirac, Carl Gauss,  Leonhard Euler, an so on, none of them had children as even half bright as their fathers.
But with Jews, the majority of them are intelligent, look for example at the statistics of the American Jews who got Nobel prize.
wrote...
Educator
10 years ago
Quote
Because when l look at very intelligent people, it is not always true that their children are as highly intelligent. For example, Paul Dirac, Albert Einstein,  Leonhard Euler, an so on, none of them had children as even half bright as their fathers.

That's true.

Offspring are not always a direct reflection of their parents. I mean, if you separate identical twins @ birth, their development will be very different - one might turn out to be smarter than the other, taller than the other, etc., and there is real-life proof of this. Intelligence isn't linear (in terms of genetics), many factors play a role. It goes back to the nature versus nurture argument - I recommend you read what's found in the link. Going back to your question, if hypothetically there was an intelligence gene, and both parents had it, the child would also inherit it, even if the father, for instance, obtained it through mutation. The mutation would be carried on in his sperm.
ali8 Author
wrote...
10 years ago Edited: 10 years ago, ali8
Fine, so let me ask the following:

Assume there is a man of certain iq. There are two women: one is Jewish, other is non-Jewish, both of iq = 150.

If the same man had children from both women, which would have more probability of having higher iq?
EDIT: assume same environmental factors for both cases.
wrote...
Educator
10 years ago
If the same man had children from both women, which would have more probability of having higher iq?

Neither, because there are too many unknowns in this scenario - I'll explain, but remember, my reasoning is based on the idea that there is only one gene responsible for IQ, which in reality is not true.

All men or women must carry two versions of a gene because we are all made up of our parents DNA - we get a single set of DNA from our father and our mother.

Nobody can answer your question because maybe the father inherited one high IQ gene from his dad and one normal IQ from his mother. And, because the normal IQ gene is dominant, the man has normal IQ even though in his DNA, he also has one high IQ gene. So, now you decide, does the man have two normal IQ genes or a mixture? Because this will ultimately change the fate of his offspring.
ali8 Author
wrote...
10 years ago Edited: 10 years ago, ali8
Nice note.

Assume the man has two normal IQ genes. Also, assume equal environmental factors for both cases.

BTW, I am a Physicist, and this is not a HW, so I hope I posted in the right place.
wrote...
Educator
10 years ago
BTW, I am a Physicist, and this is not a HW, so I hope I posted in the right place.

Good enough.

Okay, let's say normal is N and high is n. The man is NN (one N from his dad, one N from his mother). Let's say his wife has high IQ, so she has two little n genes (nn)

MALE Rightwards Arrow N....N
FEMALE Nn....Nn
Downwards Arrow
n............Nn...Nn
n............Nn...Nn

The child will be Nn, so he/she will not have high IQ. All possibilities lead to Nn.
ali8 Author
wrote...
10 years ago
So you say it is the same for both women (Jewish / non-Jewish)?

OK, It looks like I mistakenly attributed intelligence in Jewish and non-Jewish people to two different mechanisms, while they are, according to your answer, one and the same--at least in general.
wrote...
Educator
10 years ago
OK, It looks like I mistakenly attributed intelligence in Jewish and non-Jewish people to two different mechanisms, while they are, according to your answer, one and the same--at least in general.

Wink Face Yes, we are all one species - Jewish or not.
wrote...
Donated
Trusted Member
10 years ago
being jewish is also a religion, how can a religion make you smart
wrote...
10 years ago
You cannot be a Jew unless you are born like that, so it is a religion and ethnicity/race at the same time.
wrote...
Donated
Trusted Member
10 years ago
what if you choose to convert to Judaism ?
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