× Didn't find what you were looking for? Ask a question
Top Posters
Since Sunday
e
5
e
4
4
d
4
o
3
p
3
t
3
3
m
3
p
3
m
3
f
3
Home Q & A Board Biology-Related Homework Help Medicine Nursing and Clinical
New Topic  
winterw0lf winterw0lf
wrote...
Posts: 739
Rep: 0 0
6 years ago
A 37-year-old female patient has a PTT of 76 seconds (reference range, 25 to 37 seconds). Her plasma is mixed 1:1 with normal plasma. An immediate PTT performed on the mix is 74 seconds. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
 
  a. Hemophilia A
  b. Factor VIII inhibitor
  c. Intrinsic factor deficiency
  d. Lupus anticoagulant
Read 40 times
2 Replies

Related Topics

Replies
wrote...
#1
6 years ago
ANS: D
A prolonged PTT that remains prolonged after an immediate repeat of the PTT on the 1:1 mix is seen in patients (either male or female subject) with the lupus anticoagulant. A patient with hemophilia A would most likely be a male subject (female hemophilia A is rare). In addition, the immediate 1:1 mix should correct, as it also would with an intrinsic factor deficiency. The PTT on an immediate 1:1 mix in the presence of a factor VIII inhibitor would also essentially correct.
winterw0lf Author
wrote...
#2
6 years ago
You are the best
New Topic      
Quick Reply
Explore
Post your homework questions and get free online help from our incredible volunteers
  1096 People Browsing
Start New Topic Take the Tour CoursesNew Study Tools Topics Trending Browse by Textbook
Live Chat
Related Images
  
 274
  
 247
  
 230
Your Opinion
Do you believe in global warming?
Votes: 395
Previous poll results: How often do you eat-out per week?