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3MR 3MR
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6 years ago
A patient who is a 2-1-0-0-1 at 34 weeks' gestation is interested in a vaginal birth after cesarean section (VBAC) and asks the nurse about this possibility.
 
  Which reason for her primary cesarean section would indicate to the nurse that the patient should be discouraged from pursuing this option?
 
  a. Transverse lie
  b. Prolapsed cord
  c. Placenta previa
  d. Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD)
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Vianney3Vianney3
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6 years ago
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3MR Author
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6 years ago
I appreciate what you did here, answered it right Smiling Face with Open Mouth
decibul
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Yesterday
Just got PERFECT on my quiz
lipop
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2 hours ago
Smart ... Thanks!
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