*n*= 40 using a normal approximation?

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Because*n*is large, our only concern with using a normal approximation will be the small amount of variability in the sampling distribution of\(\style{font-family:Times New Roman;}{\widehat p}\).

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Because_{\(\style{font-family:Times New Roman;}{\;n}\)}is small here, the sampling distribution of\(\style{font-family:Times New Roman;}{\widehat p}\)should not be assumed to be approximately normal.

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Because\(\style{font-family:Times New Roman;}{\widehat p}\) ≤ 0.5, the sampling distribution of\(\style{font-family:Times New Roman;}{\widehat p}\)should not be assumed to be approximately normal.

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If *n **\(\style{font-family:Times New Roman;}{\widehat p}\) *< 5, then a normal approximation is not appropriate.