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Nix4Pres Nix4Pres
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Posts: 5446
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8 years ago
Your patient is a 33-year-old female who is alert and in significant distress. She describes a 1-week history of diffuse lower left quadrant abdominal pain that became acutely worse and specific 1/2 hour ago. She has not had her menstrual period in 4 months. HR = 120, BP = 72/48, RR = 20. Which of the following would be LEAST likely to have contributed to her current condition?
A) Previous ectopic pregnancy
B) Oral contraceptive use
C) Tubal ligation
D) Previous pelvic inflammatory disease
Textbook 
Essentials of Paramedic Care Update

Essentials of Paramedic Care Update


Edition: 2nd
Authors:
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feijoafeijoa
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8 years ago
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Nix4Pres Author
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#2
8 years ago
White Heavy Checkmark Marking this solved
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#3
8 years ago
Good luck on exams!
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