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Exam 3.doc

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Category: Environmental Biology
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Environmental Science 1130.004 Exam 3 Name:___________________ April 19, 2005 Instructions: Indicate the single best answer on your scantron. Ask me for help if you have trouble reading or understanding a question!!!! 1. According to the Central Case study of Chapter 10, (page 295-96) A. Severe birth defects in alligator hatchlings were due to the oil spill that occurred in 1980. B. Low hatchling rates in Lake Apopka (as compared to nearby lakes) were very likely associated with atrazine, a hormone-mimicking pesticide. C. All male alligators showed signs of feminization due to thermal pollution from a nearby nuclear power plant. 2. A dose-response curve shows how test animals respond to different doses of different concentrations of a substance being tested. What would be true of a dose labeled “LD50” on such a curve? (F. 10.10) A. Of 50 test organisms, all of the animals would be observed to die at this dose. B. Of 50 test organisms, this would be the dose threshold at which the first organism dies. C. Of 50 test organisms, half (25) would be dead at this dose. 3. Our perceptions of risk do not always match the reality of risk. Many times, when considering personal risk, we perceive to be less risky (and take less seriously) those things that we can control than things we cannot control. Perhaps the most risky activity that some people choose to participate in is (F. 10.13) A. Smoking cigarettes B. Driving automobiles C. Swimming D. Taking a commercial air flight 4. The field of Risk assessment differs from that of risk management in that it (F. 10.14) Seeks to gather information and opinions from private citizens in order to influence government policy concerning various types of risk. B. Gathers scientific measurements and results to quantify the probabilities of risks occurring. C. It is heavily lobbied by industrial and manufacturing in to establish the procedures that minimize risks. 5. An acute exposure typically involves: (page 311) A. Low concentrations of a toxicant over long periods of time. B. Low concentrations of a toxicant over short periods of time. C. High concentrations of a toxicant over a long period of time. D. High concentrations of a toxicant over a short period of time. 6. The “precautionary principle” would (F. 10.15) A. Require rigorous testing before products are brought to market to prevent harm to potential users. B. Require that rigorous testing (epidemiology) be conducted after a product is placed on the market to determine if actual users are being harmed. C. Assume that a product is considered “innocent until proven guilty”. 7. In Chapter 11, the Central Case considers the 1952 London “Killer Smog”. In this event A. A sharp increase in deaths was simultaneous with, and then continued after, spikes in smoke and atmospheric sulfur that were due to an atmospheric inversion. B. Deaths coincided with a period of strong wind that blew sulfur dioxide from factories at the edge of London over the populated central city. C. Deaths after the pollution event went down immediately to normal levels, proving that the pollution event and the smog were linked in a ‘cause and effect’ relationship. 8. The lowest level of the atmosphere is called the _______________. The layer in which naturally occurring ozone is at its highest concentration is the ______________. (F. 11.3) A. Stratosphere, stratosphere B. Troposphere, troposphere C. Troposphere, stratosphere D. Stratosphere, troposphere 9. An inversion layer (F. 11.9) A. Is caused by air pollution over a city. B. Occurs when there is a severe amount of vertical mixing in the lower atmosphere. C. Occurs due a warmer layer of air over a cooler layer of air in the lower atmosphere. D. Occurs when cold air moves from the upper atmosphere to the ground causing pollution to hug the ground. 10. Global climate is driven by large-scale movements of air and water. This movement redistributes incoming solar energy to determine patterns of humidity and aridity around the globe. Which of the following statements concerning global circulation is true? (F. 11.10) A. A large Hadley cell on either side of the equator moves warm tropical air directly to the poles. The air looses heat and moisture as it moves poleward. B. Hot air at the equator evaporates all the moisture from the surface of the land causing it to become arid. This air then moves to about 30 degrees north and south latitude where there are areas of maximum rainfall. C. Global circulation consists of a series of convection currents that cause variations in surface wind patterns and precipitation, arranged according to latitude. 11. Which of the following is not a USEPA atmospheric “criteria pollutant”? (F. 11.12) A. Carbon Monoxide B. Stratospheric Ozone C. NO2 D. Particulate Matter E. Lead 12. Photochemical smog is caused by oxidation of naturally occurring nitrogen in automobile engines as well as in industrial processes. Which of the following would be considered a ‘primary pollutant’ (as opposed to a ‘secondary pollutant’) from this process? (F. 11.15) A. Nitric oxide (NO) B. Ozone (O3) C. Acid Rain D. Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) 13. The Montreal Protocol was concerned with (page341) A. Carbon Dioxide emissions and other ‘greenhouse’ gasses B. Stratospheric ozone depletion C. Ground level ozone production D. Acid rain 14. Acid rain in the United States (F. 11.20 and p. 342-345) A. Occurs mostly in the western states where high sulfur coals are the primary source of fuel for power plants. B. Have caused the biological “sterilization” of lakes due to decreases in pH in the water bodies. C. Have caused a considerable transboundary problem between the United States and Mexico. 15. ‘Indoor air pollution’ actually causes many times the number of deaths and illnesses worldwide as outdoor air pollution. In the developing world indoor pollution arises mostly from__________. In the developed world it arises mostly from ___________. (p. 349, lecture) A. Tobacco smoke, radon gas B. Fuelwood burning, ozone C. Tobacco smoke, volatile organic compounds (VOCs) from paint, and floor and wall coverings D. Fuelwood burning, tobacco smoke and radon gas 16. In Chapter 12, the Central Case concerns global warming and coastal flooding due to rising sea levels. This particular case study concerned ______________ in the ______________ ocean. A. Seychelles, Indian B. Maldives, Indian C. Galapagos, Pacific D. Falkland, Atlantic 17. The planet Earth, due to the balance of incoming solar radiation, and the reflection, absorption, and reradiation of energy, has established a ‘temperature equilibrium’. What happens to approximately 70% of the total incoming solar radiation? (F. 12.1) A. It is absorbed by the atmosphere, land, or water. B. It is used by biological organisms as an energy resource and converted to organic material. C. Its is reflected back into space before any heating of the atmosphere or land occurs. D. It is permanently stored in the rocks and soils of the planet. 18. CGCM stands for “Coupled General Circulation Model”. Scientists feel that some CGCMs are becoming very accurate in determining the climatic effect of global warming. According to Figure 12.7, the “biosphere” (living organisms) and “land surface processes” are used in such modeling. The text goes on to say that “anthropogenic factors” are also included in the modeling. Which of the following might be considered an “anthropogenic factor” in CGCM modeling? A. Snow cover. B. Vegetation cover. C. Water cover. D. Large manmade environments, like cities. 19. Because direct human measurement of climate (such as temperature, with thermometers), goes back only to the 1800s, we must use “proxy” indicators of past climatic conditions. Which of the following is NOT a “proxy” indicator of past climate events? (F. 12.9, and text) A. Ice cores that trap fossil atmospheric gasses B. Sediment cores from lakebeds that preserve pollen grains C. “Tree rings” (including preserved logs) that show changes in growth rates, which reflect abundance of moisture during the lifetime of a tree D. All of these are examples of proxy indicators 20. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) assessed the importance of human-induced climatic change in its 2001 report. Which of the following was NOT cited in the report as an indicator of climatic change during the 20th century? (T. 12.2) A. Weather indicators such as “the Earth average temperature increase by 0.6 degrees”. B. The Earth shifted on its axis due to Milankovitch cycles, “shifting incoming solar radiation northward”. C. Physical indicators such as “Average sea level increased 10-20 cm”. D. Biological indicators such as “geographic ranges of many plants and animals shifted towards the poles”. 21. What area of the United States will most likely suffer the worst consequences from coastal erosion should sea level rise? (F. 12.11) A. The Great Lakes States B. New England (Maine through Connecticut) C. The Pacific Northwest (Washington, Oregon) D. The Gulf Coasts of Texas and Louisiana 22. One thing that is certain about climate change is that the effects will NOT be felt evenly across the globe. Table 12.4 lists the “Predicted Impacts of Climate Change on the United States”. From this table, the reader can infer that (T. 12.4) A. We are situated on the globe so that climate change will not significantly affect American lifestyles. B. There might be significant shifts in economic activities, but biomes and ecosystems will remain essentially where they are today. C. The climate will be wetter, meaning that water shortages will no longer be a problem. D. No matter where you are on the planet or how affluent the society is, we have some serious adjustments to make. 23. The Canadian Model for the change in “July Heat Index”, for various reasons, shows much more severe changes than the Hadley model. But for either model “average summer mortality rates” due to hot weather are expected to increase most in: (F. 12.13, We talked about this in class) A. Central Texas in cities like Dallas B. The Southeast in cities like Atlanta C. The southwest in cities like Phoenix D. The upper Midwest in cities like Chicago 24. Which country did not sign the Kyoto Protocol concerning carbon emissions and global warming? (p. 382, and lecture) A. China B. India C. United States D. Japan 25. What is the largest source of anthropogenic greenhouse gases in the United States? (p. 377) A. Electricity generation B. The Space shuttle program C. Aerosol cans and refrigeration D. Transportation (Cars, trucks, busses) 26. According to the Central Case, “Seeding the Seas with Marine Reserves” the Florida Keys National Marine Sanctuary was established to reduce environmental damage to sensitive corals from: A. Overfishing, trash and sewage dumping, boats groundings, and careless anchorings B. Pesticides, oil, heavy metals, sediments, and runoff of fertilizers and nutrients C. Cutting of mangroves and coastal development D. All of the above (This area undergoes many environmental stresses.) 27. In which areas of the world’s oceans do surface and bottom temperatures and water densities vary the least? (F. 13.4) A. Polar regions B. Temperate regions C. Tropical regions 28. Near shore upwelling in the ocean (which brings nutrients to the surface of the water where it is used by fish) is oftentimes caused by (F. 13.6) A. Deep-sea currents B. Ocean waves C. Winds moving parallel to the coastline D. Fish looking for food 29. The sub-sea floor has a complex geography including oceanic ridges, a continental rise, slope, and shelf, deep-sea planes, and a variety of near-shore environments. This produces a complex variety of marine habitats in which organisms might live. Oceanographers classify and name these habitats, or “zones”, based upon “nearness to the shoreline” and: (F. 13.9) A. Water temperature B. Water depth C. The slope of the sea floor D. The type of organism living there 30. As technology changes, industrial fishing fleets have been venturing farther and farther out into the oceans since the 1950s. In general, (F. 13.22) A. This new technology has guaranteed increasing fish catches in all portions of the world’s ocean over the past 50 years. B. A majority of fishing areas has maintained catch rates of at least 10 catches per 100 hooks. C. Large areas of the Atlantic have been “fished out” and the Central Pacific is in sharp decline. 31. Scientists have studied the effects of various sizes of “marine reserves”. For a variety of reasons, a reserve that is too small is probably not effective in protecting marine organisms. Interestingly, a preserve can also be too large and loose its effectiveness. The reason cited in the text for a reserve being too large is: (F. 13.25) A. Fish cannot migrate out to breed with other members of its species. This leads to an unhealthy loss of genetic diversity. B. A large preserve is impossible to protect against poachers unless a lot of money is spent on game wardens. C. Fish cannot migrate out of the preserve where they can be legally harvested. This leads to a loss of support from local fishermen, which ultimately harms the effort to save marine fisheries. 32. A keystone species in a coastal California “Kelp Forest” marine ecosystems is A. Great white sharks (p. 396 and lecture) B. Kelp C. Sea urchins D. Sea otters 33. An area noted for the dynamic mixing of fresh and saline waters is known as (p. 401) A. Mangrove forest B. Intertidal zone C. Estuary D. Coral Reef 34. According to the Central Case, “Plumbing the Colorado” A. California has routinely exceeded its allotted portion of the Colorado River B. The growing population of Las Vegas, Nevada is the primary reason why the Colorado River is over-allocated C. The Colorado, as it flows through the Grand Canyon, is in danger of becoming the last free- flowing river in the American Southwest. D. Colorado River water would reach the Gulf of California if it were recycled and discharged back into the river seven times. 35. Fresh water constitutes only 2.5% of all the water on Earth. Of all fresh water, __________ is found in rivers for use by humans and other biological organisms. (Think about this one. You might need to write down the facts you know and do some math.) (F. 14.1) A. 50% B. 10% C. 1% D. .01% 36. A rainshadow occurs on the leeward, or _________ portion of a mountain range. One would expect a ____________ biome to occur here. (F. 14.2) A. Upwind, forest B. Upwind, desert C. Downwind, forest D. Downwind, desert 37. An artesian well (or a natural artesian flow) would occur when (F. 14.3) A. Groundwater is confined between upper and lower layers of clay and the recharge zone is at a higher elevation than the well. B. Groundwater is confined between upper and lower layers of clay and the recharge zone is at an elevation lower than the well. C. Groundwater lies above a layer of clay (is unconfined) and the recharge zone is at an elevation higher than the well. D. Groundwater lies above a layer of clay (is unconfined) and the recharge zone is at an elevation lower than the well. 38. Available fresh water is not distributed equally in time and in space around the world. Some nations and regions have much greater volumes of water than others. Why is it that water is very scarce in Australia, yet there is plenty to go around for human use? (F. 14.5) A. Australians are very efficient users of water and need very little water for industry and agriculture. B. Water availability is expressed on a “per capita” basis. There are relatively few Australians to use it. C. Most Australians live within 10 miles of the Pacific or Indian Oceans. 39. Water consumption falls into three broad categories of usage, domestic (or municipal), agricultural, and industrial. According to the text, the sector that uses the most water worldwide is____________. The sector which generates the most income per unit of water used is_____________. (p. 427-428) A. Industrial, industrial B. Agricultural, agricultural C. Industrial, Agricultural D. Agricultural, Industrial 40. Lithuania is a country for which domestic usage is larger than either industrial or agricultural usage. The largest sector for the United States is______________. (F. 14.7) A. Domestic B. Industrial C. Agricultural 41. Dams have both positive and negative impacts on specific aspects of environmental and human welfare. According to the text, damming a river provides, simultaneously, both positive and negative benefits for which of the following? (F. 14.11) A. Fisheries B. Sediment transport C. Recreation D. Downstream habitat 42. In class, we have talked about three separate international river basins, shared between the United States and Mexico, in which transboundary water issues occur. In two of these basins, international treaties have been signed to determine water quantities to be shared by each nation. In one of these basins it is not water quantity, but rather water quality that is the main concern. In which basin is water quality the over-riding issue? (F. 14.16, lecture) A. Tijuana B. Colorado C. Rio Grande 43. There is an oftentimes-difficult distinction between “point source” and “non-point source” pollution that is based upon the size of the area from which the pollution originates. The following are all listed in the text as “non-point source” emitters of pollution, but one should probably be more correctly listed as a “point source” polluter. Which one? (F. 14.17) A. Farms, lawns, and golf courses (that emit fertilizers, herbicides, and pesticides) B. Residential neighborhoods and urban streets (that emit salts, oil, grease, and chemicals) C. Construction sites, and deforested and overgrazed land (that emit sediments) D. Abandoned mine (that emits acid drainage) 44. In Bangladesh, ____________ is present in drinking water. The source of this poisonous element is _____________. (p. 448-449) A. Arsenic, river water flowing from the mountains B. Arsenic, artesian well water C. Lead, river water flowing from the mountains D. Lead, artesian well water 45. Habitat, community, and landscape are important elements of ________________ diversity. A. Genetic (F. 15.2) B. Species C. Ecosystem 46. The hierarchy of taxonomic classification is: Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species. Two species that are similar in appearance, behavior, and genetics due to a common recent ancestry would most likely be in the same _____________. (F 15.3) A. Phylum B. Class C. Order D. Family E. Genus 47. Which taxonomic group of organisms is probably the most incompletely identified, named, described and might therefore be much more diverse than would be indicated by scientific literature? (F 15.5) A. Insects B. Mammals C. Bacteria D. Sponges 48. The so-called “latitudinal gradient” is an explanation of the geographical distribution of __________ with respect to latitude. (F 15.6) A. Niche sizes B. Species richness C. Habitat diversity D. Incoming solar radiation 49. “Niche dimension” refers not to a geographic area, but rather to the range of resources, such as the variety of food items, that a species uses in its day-to-day activities. Which statement is true about niche dimensions? (F 15.7) A. Smaller ‘niche dimensions’ in the tropics implies that smaller species can live in the tropics than in polar regions. B. Larger ‘niche dimensions’ in polar regions implies that polar species are more likely to be generalists than tropical species. C. Tropical species have many more habitat needs for gathering resources than polar species. 50. The NAAQS (lecture) A. Sets acceptable levels of criteria air pollutants and attainment goals for Air Attainment Districts throughout the United States. B. Regulates all state activities with respect to agricultural discharges of inorganic nutrients from farm lands, ranches, and feedlots C. Is a policy guiding the commercial harvesting of fish in United States Coastal Waters D. Sets American Agricultural Quality Standards for pesticide residues on all fruits and vegetables grown (or imported) in the United States.

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