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Which of the following statements by the daughter of an 87-year-old resident of a nursing home would the nurse most likely want to correct or clarify?
 
  A) It seems like more and more people are living well into their 80s like my mom..
  B) My mom has a house worth loads of money but little cash flow, like many older adults..
  C) It seems like heart disease is getting more common even though people live longer than they used to..
  D) There are more women living to my mother's age than there are men..

Question 2

In preparation for the return of the surgical patient, the patient's bed and equipment should be in what position?
 
  a. Lowest position with side rails elevated with oxygen and suction equipment available
  b. Highest position with side rails elevated with IV pole and pump at bedside
  c. Lowest position with side rails down on the receiving side
  d. Highest position with the side rails down on receiving side and up on opposite side

Question 3

Which clinical guideline should the nurse follow when providing oxygen therapy to older adults?
 
  A) Oxygen therapy should be utilized with older adults only as a last resort
  B) Oxygen therapy should be used with caution to prevent CO2 retention and narcosis
  C) Inhaled or nebulized medications are contraindicated with ongoing oxygen therapy
  D) Oxygen therapy can safely be used with patients experiencing or at risk for developing lung disease

Question 4

The family of an 85-year-old man who has been admitted to hospital with exacerbation of his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has expressed concern about their ability to pay for his present and future care.
 
  Which of the following statements most accurately conveys the reality of payment for care services by older adults? A) The high value of assets owned by older adults makes the financial burden of care minimal for most older adults.
  B) Payment for long-term care of adults is most often covered by private insurers.
  C) Most older adults have their basic care needs provided in a long-term facility.
  D) Overall, federal money pays for more care than do older adults themselves or private insurers.

Question 5

Ideally, preop teaching should be done
 
  a. immediately before surgery to eliminate fear.
  b. 2 months in advance so the patient can prepare.
  c. 1 to 2 days before the surgery when anxiety is not as high.
  d. in the surgical holding area.

Question 6

The nurse educator is instructing new graduate nurses on the differences in presentation and course of pneumonia in older adults. What differences should the educator include in this teaching?
 
  A) Older adults often do not experience chest pain or exhibit a high fever
  B) Older adults often develop sepsis before symptoms of pneumonia are evident
  C) Older adults more often develop lung consolidation rather than production of secretions
  D) Pneumonia in older adults is most often linked to exposure to environmental toxins over the course of a lifetime
A middle-aged woman sustained an elbow fracture in a bicycle crash and has required reduction and fixation to aid healing. The nurse is aware of the need for vigilant neurovascular assessment.
 
  How should the nurse assess the function of the patient's ulnar nerve?
  A) Ask the patient to clench and unclench her fist several times.
  B) Ask the patient to rotate her hand at the wrist.
  C) Touch the back of the patient's hand with a pen and ask if the patient is able to feel the sensation.
  D) Ask the patient to spread her fingers as widely as possible.

Question 2

Three areas of the ureters have a propensity for obstruction. Prompt management of renal calculi is most important when the stone is located where?
 
  A) In the ureteropelvic junction
  B) In the ureteral segment near the sacroiliac junction
  C) In the ureterovesical junction
  D) In the urethra

Question 3

A 77-year-old man is recovering in the hospital after a recent femoral fracture and has rung his call light. The nurse has entered the room to find the patient in distress, clutching his chest while struggling to say, I can't breathe.
 
   The nurse should take prompt action based on the knowledge that this patient may be experiencing what complication of lower extremity fractures?
  A) Thromboembolism
  B) Unstable angina
  C) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
  D) Ischemic stroke

Question 4

A patient with renal insufficiency has been hospitalized on a medical unit. The patient knows that renal function depends upon the functional status of nephrons.
 
  The patient asks the nurse when she will need to start dialysis based upon loss of nephron function. How should the nurse respond?
  A) When about 50 of the nephrons are no longer functioning.
  B) When about 60 of the nephrons are no longer functioning.
  C) When about 70 of the nephrons are no longer functioning.
  D) When about 80 of the nephrons are no longer functioning.

Question 5

The nurse is conducting a scheduled assessment of a female patient who has been admitted to the unit following surgical repair of her fractured humerus.
 
  Which of the following assessment findings should prompt the nurse to contact the patient's care provider?
  A) The patient's capillary refill in her fingers is 1 to 2 seconds.
  B) The patient is able to wiggle each of her fingers and her thumb.
  C) There is a moderate amount of edema in the patient's hand and fingers.
  D) The patient states that her hand and her fingers are numb.

Question 6

The nurse is planning the care of a patient who has a diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis. As part of this patient's early discharge planning, the nurse is identifying goals for self-care in collaboration with the patient.
 
  Which of the following goals is the most likely priority?
  A) The patient will plan a nutritionally balanced diet.
  B) The patient will abstain from drinking alcohol.
  C) The patient will demonstrate the correct technique for blood glucose testing.
  D) The patient will demonstrate aseptic technique of a dressing change.

Question 7

An older adult man has been diagnosed with a femoral head fracture after falling outside his home, and his health care provider has chosen open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF).
 
  How should the nurse best explain this procedure to the patient?
  A) The surgeon will give you an anesthetic and then apply a cast.
  B) The surgeon will place plates or rods outside your hip and keep you in traction until your bones heal.
  C) The surgeon will use pins and rods to keep your bones in place until they heal.
  D) The surgeon will use a scope inserted through punctures in your skin to remove any bone fragments.
The nurse is assessing a patient diagnosed with Graves' disease. What physical characteristics of Graves' would the nurse expect to find?
 
  A) Hair loss
  B) Moon face
  C) Bulging eyes
  D) Fatigue

Question 2

An older adult patient has been brought to the emergency department (ED) after being found unconscious by a neighbor. What action should be the ED nurse's highest priority in the care of this patient?
 
  A) Obtain a full set of vital signs.
  B) Assess the patient's level of consciousness (LOC).
  C) Maintain the patency of the patient's airway.
  D) Establish IV access.

Question 3

A neurological nurse is conducting a scheduled assessment of a patient who is receiving care on the unit. The nurse is aware of the need to conduct a vigilant assessment of the patient's level of consciousness (LOC).
 
  How should the nurse best gauge a patient's LOC?
  A) By assessing according to the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
  B) By eliciting the patient's response to a question requiring judgment
  C) By engaging the patient in a conversation, if possible
  D) By observing the patient's interactions with caregivers

Question 4

A patient with a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is being cared for on a medical unit, and the nurse is writing an individualized care plan.
 
  The priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with this condition is what?
  A) Deficient fluid volume
  B) Excessive fluid volume
  C) Hypothermia
  D) Hyperthermia

Question 5

The victim of a motor vehicle accident has been admitted with massive trauma, including traumatic brain injury.
 
  Emergency treatment of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) has failed to resolve the problem, and monitoring reveals the ominous presence of Cushing's triad. What assessment findings would be consistent with this clinical phenomenon?
  A) PaO2 70 mm Hg; RR 12 breaths per minute; HR 116 beats per minute
  B) Temperature 104F (40C); RR 33 breaths per minute; HR 111 beats per minute
  C) HR 38 beats per minute; BP 198/107 mm Hg; RR 7 breaths per minute
  D) pH 7.2; PaO2 72 mm Hg; HCO3 20 mEq/L

Question 6

A middle-aged male has been brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being found unconscious by police with injuries consistent with an assault.
 
  Injuries on the man's face and skull necessitate prompt assessment for traumatic brain injury. What neuroimaging tests are best able to yield clinically meaningful data? Select all that apply.
  A) Computed tomography (CT)
  B) Radiographs (X-ray)
  C) Positron emission tomography (PET)
  D) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
  E) Doppler ultrasound

Question 7

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with Hashimoto's thyroiditis. When assessing this patient what symptom would the nurse expect in a patient with hypothyroidism?
 
  A) Bradycardia
  B) Bulging eyes
  C) Palpitations
  D) Flushed skin
Numerical weather prediction involves:
 a. an analysis of past weather.
 b. modern forecasting tools using high-speed computers.
 c. old-fashioned weather watching.
 d. weather forecasting through analogues.

Question 2

Meteograms are useful for:
 a. comparing surface weather variables at several different stations.
 b. comparing surface and upper-level weather conditions.
 c. comparing surface weather variables over a few days at one station.
 d. All of these choices.

Question 3

A weather warning means that:
 a. hazardous weather conditions have terminated.
 b. hazardous weather conditions are either imminent or are already occurring.
 c. atmospheric conditions favor the formation of hazardous weather.
 d. None of these choices.

Question 4

The ensemble method of forecasting hurricane paths creates a range of predictions using many different computer models.
  Indicate whether the statement is true or false

Question 5

Only the stronger hurricanes have fronts.
  Indicate whether the statement is true or false

Question 6

All tropical storms develop into hurricanes.
  Indicate whether the statement is true or false

Question 7

During the storm surge:
 a. the hurricane environment changes from neutral to conditionally unstable.
 b. the ocean level rises abnormally.
 c. the trade winds reverse direction.
 d. All of these choices.
At a warm front, the warm air
   a. rises and cools.
   b. rises and warms.
   c. sinks and cools.
   d. sinks and warms.
   e. does not move.

Q. 2

In winter, which sequence of clouds would you most likely expect to observe as a warm front with precipitation approaches your location?
   a. cirrus, nimbostratus, altostratus, and cumulonimbus
   b. cirrus, cirrostratus, altostratus, and nimbostratus
   c. cirrostratus, nimbostratus, altostratus, and fog
   d. cirrus, cirrostratus, altostratus, and cumulonimbus
   e. altostratus, cirrostratus, cirrus, and nimbostratus

Q. 3

A halo around the Sun or Moon indicates that rain may be on the way because the halo indicates a(n)
   a. cold front may be approaching.
   b. warm front may be approaching.
   c. sharp drop in atmospheric pressure.
   d. sudden rise in surface dew point temperature.
   e. occluded front just passed.

Q. 4

back door cold front best describes which of the following situations?
   a. a cold front moving into Washington state from the Pacific ocean
   b. a cold front moving into the desert southwest from Northern Mexico
   c. a cold front that moves into New England from the Atlantic Ocean
   d. a cold front that moves in a clockwise direction around a low pressure center
   e. a cold front that originated over the Pacific Ocean.

Q. 5

Squall lines most often form ahead of a
   a. cold front.
   b. warm front.
   c. cold-type occluded front.
   d. warm-type occluded front.
   e. stationary front.
Which of the following is not a block to career counseling?
 
  a. Clients expecting to gain expert advice
  b. Counselors collusion with clients need for an answer
  c. Counselor providing structure for client self exploration
  d. Counselor quickly administers a career test and immediately interprets the results to the client.

Q. 2

The importance of a persons occupation is demonstrated by its announcement of which of the following:
 
  a. Intelligence
  b. Economic class
  c. Interpersonal capabilities
  d. Social standing
  e. All of the above

Q. 3

Given the necessity of frequent change required in the global economy, workers must demonstrate ________________ and act as a free agent. not tied to one job or company.
 
  a. Consistency
  b. Education
  c. Traditionalism
  d. Flexibility
  e. Training

Q. 4

Career development has always required the integration between the __________________ and the ________________________.
 
  a. individual; market
  b. external demands; internal self
  c. family; individual
  d. internal demands; management
  e. process; product

Q. 5

In todays reality, the individuals ____________________ will be the major factor under the persons control.
 
  a. wages
  b. benefits
  c. professional longevity
  d. career self-concept
  e. career satisfaction

Q. 6

Career counselors today must draw from a variety of fields as they recognize the interdependence of the ______________________, individual career development, social systems, and training/school environments.
 
  a. biological system
  b. transportation system
  c. global history
  d. health system
  e. economic system

Q. 7

Kelly is a career counselor in private practice. She is careful to integrate both the clients subjective views and appropriate psychometric instruments in her work with clients. It appears that Kelly is working from ______________________.
 
  a. the modern approach
  b. an eclectic approach
  c. the postmodern approach
  d. neither the modern, an eclectic, nor the postmodern approach
  e. both the modern and postmodern approach
When Grace speaks to Samson she uses communicative behaviors that make him feel good or comfortable around her. This is an example of
 
  A) positivity.
  B) openness.
  C) assurances.
  D) blending social networks.
  E) sharing tasks.
Cultural relativism professes that individuals should judge another culture by its context and not by comparing one culture to another.
 
  A. True
  B. False
4 years ago in History (Humanities)
Growing middle-class unrest late in the Daz era is illustrated by the Mexican Liberal party headed by
 
  A) Justo Sierra.
  B) the Flores Magn brothers.
  C) Manuel Gonzlez.
  D) Manuel Romero Rubio.
4 years ago in History (Humanities)
President Nixon's policy of ____ called for a gradual handover of the ground war to the South Vietnamese army.
 
  a. Vietnamization
  b. the Nixon Doctrine
  c. Cambodianizing
  d. dtente
  e. guerilla warfare
4 years ago in History (Humanities)
All of the following were brought to Europe from the New World EXCEPT
 
  a. gold and silver
  b. tobacco
  c. rubber
  d. wheat
  e. coca
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