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nakungth nakungth
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6 years ago
Suppose that the price of gasoline has risen by 50%.  What happens to a consumer's level of well-being given he spends some of his income on gasoline?  Diagram the impact of the increase in gas prices in a commodity space diagram, and show the relevant indifference curves.         

Now, if the individual's income rises just enough so that his original consumption bundle exactly exhausts his income, will the individual purchase more or less gasoline (this level of income implies the consumer can afford his original consumption bundle)?  Is the individual better-off at the higher price level of gasoline with the higher income level or the original price of gas and income?
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Microeconomics

Microeconomics


Edition: 8th
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wrote...
6 years ago
Initially, the consumer is on budget constraint BC1, consuming g1 units of gasoline on indifference curve I1, where M is the individual's income level and P1 is the price of gasoline.  If only the price of gasoline changes to P2, the horizontal axis intercept of the budget constraint moves towards the origin.  This is illustrated above by a movement to the budget constraint BC2.  On indifference I2, his level of satisfaction is lower than before.    

Now, if the individual's income increases just enough so that his original consumption bundle exactly exhausts his new budget.  However, the slope of the budget constraint (BC3) that runs through his original consumption bundle is steeper due to the higher price of gas.  This also implies that his MRS is less than the ratio of prices.  Thus, the individual can attain a higher level of utility by purchasing less gasoline than g1.  The individual is better-off at higher prices and income than at original levels.
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