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coolio567 coolio567
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6 years ago
A female client has been prescribed Micronor as an oral contraceptive. What is the best explanation by the nurse in terms of how this medication is used to prevent pregnancy?
 
  1. It produces a thick, viscous mucus at the entrance to the uterus that prevents penetration by sperm.
  2. It terminates pregnancy.
  3. It increases ovulation.
  4. It prevents ovulation.
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Replies
wrote...
6 years ago
1

Rationale 1: The progestin-only oral contraceptives prevent pregnancy primarily by producing a thick, viscous mucus at the entrance to the uterus that prevents penetration by sperm.
Rationale 2:Progestin-only contraceptives do not terminate a pregnancy.
Rationale 3:Progestin-only contraceptives do not increase ovulation.
Rationale 4: Progestin-only contraceptives do not prevent ovulation.

Global Rationale: The progestin-only oral contraceptives prevent pregnancy primarily by producing a thick, viscous mucus at the entrance to the uterus that prevents penetration by sperm. A thicker mucosal lining inhibits implantation of a fertilized egg.
coolio567 Author
wrote...
6 years ago
TYVM
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