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oelara oelara
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6 years ago
A nurse is reviewing discharge instructions with a patient. The patient asks the nurse why the oral dose of the opioid is so much higher than the intravenous dose he has been receiving. The nurse's best response would be
 
  a. Only a maintenance dose of the medication is required. Your body already has built up the medication from its intravenous administration.
  b. The oral form of the drug passes through the liver and is then metabolized prior to obtaining the desired effect.
  c. Opiates are subject to being acid labile and destroyed in the gut, so the dose required is higher.
  d. The doses should be the same. The prescriber must think that your pain is not well controlled.
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amavamav
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6 years ago
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oelara Author
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6 years ago
Helped a lot
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Smart ... Thanks!
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2 hours ago
Thanks for your help!!
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