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tyler0468 tyler0468
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6 years ago
Express whether the universalizability inherent in Kant's test is sufficient for a theory based on truly moral grounds.
 
  A. Yes, the universalizability in Kant's test is sufficient for morality because itconsiders what benefits the overall good.
 B. Yes, the universalizability in Kant's test is sufficient for morality because whatis morally required for one is morally required for all without consideration ofany exceptions.
 C. No, morality requires that the universalizability in Kant's test be combinedwith adequate moral grounds for determining that the rule would benefit the
 most people for the overall good.
  D. No, morality requires that the universalizability in Kant's test be combined
  with adequate moral grounds for determining when exceptions are to be
  explicitly or implicitly included in those maxims.
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