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Charlesnep Charlesnep
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5 years ago
A 69-year-old female responded well to inpatient treatment with a third-generation cephalosporin. After being largely symptom free for 48 hours, the woman has developed a fever of 38.6C and an elevated white cell count. What phenomenon may account for this patient's current clinical presentation?
A)The patient may be infected with microorganisms that were resistant to the cephalosporin.
B)The patient may be experiencing a delayed (type IV) hypersensitivity reaction to the cephalosporin.
C)The patient may be developing glomerulonephritis secondary to the nephrotoxic cephalosporin.
D)The cephalosporin may have initially caused leukopenia and made the patient susceptible to secondary infection.
Textbook 
Abrams' Clinical Drug Therapy: Rationales for Nursing Practice

Abrams' Clinical Drug Therapy: Rationales for Nursing Practice


Edition: 10th
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linhhhlinhhh
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Charlesnep Author
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5 years ago
Smart ... Thanks!
SUmmerPeople
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Yesterday
Brilliant ツ
taydav
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2 hours ago
Helped a lot
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