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1) What structure in the plant regulates transpiration of water into the environment?
A. Stomata
B. Cuticles
C. Trichomes
D. Sporangia
E. Mitochondra
2) Dicots differ from monocots in that
A. in the stem, dicot veins are complex whereas monocot stems are arranged in a ring.
B. in the leaf, dicot veins have netted venation whereas monocot stems have parallel venation.
C. Dicot stems do not have vascular bundles, whereas monocot stems have vascular bundles.
D. Dicots usually have floral parts in multiples of three, whereas monocots have floral parts in
multiples of four or five.
3) A root hair is
A. a continuous extension of a cell from the vascular tissue
B. a specialized outward extension of a root epidermal cell
C. The site of adventitious root formation
D. The main site where the root apical meristem is found
4) Apical dominance is prevalent in many plant species. It is caused
A. when a terminal bud sends signals to stimulate lateral bud growth, thus producing lateral
shoots dominant over the terminal shoot.
B. when lateral buds send signals to the apex to grow. Loss of the lateral buds will cause the
apex to stop growing.
C. when signals from lateral roots inhibit growth of the primary root
D. when the most mature trees in the canopy shade out neighboring trees and prevent their
growth.
E. when the terminal bud sends signals to inhibit the growth of lateral shoots. Loss of the
terminal bud results in growth of the lateral shoots.
5) In the vasculature of a plant, the phloem transports photosynthates and nutrients. Phloem is
composed of these cell types
A. vessels, fibers, parenchyma
B. vessels, companion cells, and sieve-tube members
C. companion cells, quiescent cells, and sieve-tube members
D. sieve tube members and companion cells
6) In the growing primary root, three zones of growth are active. These are the
A. zone of cell division, elongation and maturation
B. zone of cell quiescence, enumeration and expansion
C. zone of cell division, maturation and migration
D. zone of cell elongation, maturation, and reversion.
7) In the lamina (blade) of the leaf, the palisade parenchyma is specialized for ______________
and the spongy parenchyma is most specialized for ______________.
A. water absorption……gas exchange
B. photosynthesis……gas exchange
C. gas exchange…….water absorption
D. structural support……photosynthesis 2
8) According to the ABC theory of floral organ determination
A. A gene expression alone leads to formation of carpels.
B. B and C gene expression leads to the formation of carpels.
C. A and C gene expression leads to the formation of petals.
D. C gene expression alone leads to the formation of carpels.
9) The most abundant compound in plant walls is a molecule called cellulose. Cellulose itself is
composed of a polymer of
A. sugar molecules.
B. phenolic compounds.
C. lipids.
D. proteins.
10) Dr. Gerome Challenger discovered a new essential nutrient required for plant growth. He
proved his remarkable discovery by
A. adding this nutrient to the soil and noticing that the plants treated with this nutrient grew
better then the untreated plants.
B. adding this nutrient to the soil and noticing that at low dose treatments the plants were healthy
and at high doses the plants died
C. growing plants hydroponically and noticing that individuals without the nutrient did much
better.
D. growing plant hydroponically for several generations and noticing that eventually the plants
could not produce viable seeds without the nutrient.
11) The clay particles in the soil are important for plants because they
A. are composed of organic matter.
B. eliminate spaces for air and facilitate drainage.
C. carry a negative charge and therefore are a repository of positive ions.
D. allow positively charged ions to leach from soil following a rain.
E. are the basic building structures found in plant cell walls.
12) One step farmers can take towards sustainable agriculture can be obtained if
A. topsoil is retained by contour planting
B. nitrogen is provided with a heavy reliance on synthetic fertilizers
C. the soil is continuously irrigated year after year.
D. Cover crops are never planted.
13) Plants are able to fix N2 from the air by
A. the use of a specialized chemical reaction using clay particles.
B. the use of specialized tubes (pneumatophores) reaching from the roots to the atmosphere that
absorb gaseous nitrate.
C the use of symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria that live in root nodules.
D. the use of parasitic traps that collect N2 catalyzing insects.
14) A signal molecule that originates from the root hair and reaches rhizobium to initiate the
infection process is called a
A. Nod factor
B. chitin-like substance
C. pectin
D. flavonoid 3
15) Both ectomycorrhizea and endomicorrhizea effect plant growth
A. in a negative fashion due to parasitic activity
B. in a negative fashion due to the fungi’s consumption of valuable resources
C. in a positive fashion due to the fungi’s ability to enhance the root’s absorption of minerals and
water.
D. in a positive fashion due to the fungi’s ability to provide photosynthetic products to the plants.
16) Epiphytic plants have
A. a sophisticated root system adapted to absorb nutrients from the soil
B. the ability to grow on the surface of other plants or structures
C. depend on the photosynthetic production of food from their hosts for survival
D. all have specialized structures to trap insects as a nitrogen supplement.
17) Arabidopsis was chosen as the first plant to have its genome completely sequenced because:
A. it has a full set of chromosome
B. it has an attractive, and popular horticultural flower found in gardens worldwide.
C. it produces rare oils that may solve the world’s energy crises
D. it has a small stature, a fast life cycle, simple genetics and a small genome.
18) The mature seed produced by angiosperms has
A. long-term storage material inside providing food for the young embryo.
B. a young unfertilized gametophyte inside waiting to be fertilized.
C. a specialized chamber within which a pollen tube will grow to the ovule.
D. All of the above
19) Sexual reproduction is a big advantage to promote gene diversity, however asexual
(vegetative) reproduction persists in plants. Which is not a form of asexual reproduction?
A. Apomixis
B. Fragmentation
C. Clonal growth in temperate tree forests
D. Propagation from leaves
E. Dioecy
20) All pollen produced from which plant genotype can successfully fertilize the egg of a S1S4
genotype?
A. S1S4
B. S2S4
C. S4S2
D. S2S3
21) The ovary of angiosperms has evolved various roles. What is not a purpose of the ovary?
A. To enhance seed distribution by becoming fruity so that it is eaten, and later defecated at a
distant locality.
B. To enhance seed distribution by gaining structural characters enabling it to be easily blown to
new localities by the wind.
C. To develop hooks that stick into the fur of passing animals for long distance dispersal
D. To protect the young leaves from photo-damaging ultraviolet rays.
22) What is (are) a way(s) to break seed dormancy?
A. Cold treatment 4
B. Acid treatment
C. Fire treatment
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C.
23) Introduction of foreign DNA into a plant through biolistics
A. is an example of grafting.
B. is an example of sexual reproduction.
C. is an example of asexual reproduction.
D. is an example of modern biotechnology.
E. is an example of protoplast fusion.
24) Which statement is true?
A. Plants have only recently (within the past 100 years) been genetically engineered by man
through selective breeding.
B. Genetically modified organisms can only receive and express genes from closely related
species.
C. Transgenic plants can express foreign genes that make them resistant to predators (eg. Bt
toxin).
D. DNA can only be transformed into plants during sexual recombination.
25) The equator is warmer than the poles because:
a. The earth revolves around the sun.
b. The earth rotates.
c. The tilt of the earth’s axis.
d. Light from the sun has to travel through space longer to get to the poles than to the
equator.
e. More light from the sun is reflected away by the atmosphere at the poles than at the
equator.
26) The least important factor in shaping the climate of a region:
a. The amount of sunlight.
b. Global patterns of wind movement.
c. The dominant plant and animal life of the region.
d. Global patterns of water movement.
e. The amount of precipitation.
27) Humans have often moved species from their native habitats to new habitats where they
can also be successful. Select the statement about this practice that is true:
a. It is not a wise practice, because moving even a few individuals from a native
population causes the native population to become extinct.
b. It is not a wise practice, because introduced species often interfere with, and cause the
extinction of, native species of the new habitat.
c. It is a sound practice, because it introduces genetic diversity that can be shared
between species.
d. It is a sound practice, because the best situation for the earth is to have all of the same
organisms occur all over the world.
e. None of the above.
28) While climbing up a mountain, you would observe transitions in biological communities
that are similar to those you would encounter: 5
a. As you travel from the tropics to the poles.
b. In a community through different seasons.
c. In an ecosystem as it evolves over time.
d. As you travel across the United States from east to west.
e. As you travel across the United States from west to east.
29) Select the correct arrangement of biomes from least to most stratified:
a. Tropical forest, tundra, temperate forest, coniferous forest.
b. Coniferous forest, tundra, temperate forest, tropical forest.
c. Tundra, coniferous forest, tropical forest, temperate forest.
d. Tundra, temperate forest, coniferous forest, tropical forest.
e. Tundra, coniferous forest, temperate forest, tropical forest.
30) Select the biome that is not adapted to frequent fires.
a. Desert.
b. Savanna.
c. Chaparral.
d. Temperate grassland.
e. None of the above.
31) Gymnosperms are the dominant plants in:
a. Coniferous forests.
b. Tundra.
c. Temperate forests.
d. Tropical forests.
e. Deserts.
32) The aquatic community that would be least affected by reduction in sunlight:
a. Coral reef.
b. Lake.
c. Ocean pelagic.
d. Hydrothermal vent.
e. Intertidal.
33) Select the incorrect match between the biome and its characteristic feature
a. Pond: may experience great temperature fluctuations.
b. Wetlands: covered by salt water.
c. Intertidal: organisms are adapted to waves.
d. Coral reefs: found only in shallow waters.
e. Ocean pelagic: the major source of the world’s oxygen.
34) Select in incorrect match between a dispersion pattern and its feature:
a. Random: individuals are evenly spaced.
b. Clumped: the most common dispersion pattern in nature.
c. Uniform: the result of antagonistic interactions among individuals.
d. Clumped: the result of positive interactions among individuals.
e. Clumped: the result of individuals clustering where resources are localized.
35) The most unlikely organism is one that reproduces:
a. once, producing many small offspring, and lives a short time
b. many times, producing few small offspring each time, and lives a short time 6
c. many times, producing few large offspring each time, and lives a long time
d. many times, producing many large offspring each time, and lives a long time.
e. many times, producing many large offspring each time, and lives a short time.
36) Not a usual feature of an r-strategist:
a. Adapted to disturbed habitats.
b. Small body size.
c. Parental care.
d. Generalists.
e. Short-lived.
37) When species are introduced into a new area and exhibit an initial period of exponential
growth, this is because:
a. Introduced species always survive better in a new habitat.
b. All species show an exponential growth curve.
c. Native species compete with the introduced species.
d. Resources are abundant and predators are absent.
e. The introduced species has reached carrying capacity.
38) Select that statement that is false:
a. Large organisms usually have lower population densities than small organisms.
b. Small populations face a greater risk of extinction than large populations.
c. Survival in young is greater in reptiles than in amphibians.
d. Mortality in young is less in mammals than in most invertebrates.
e. A population in which most of the members are pre-reproductive is declining.
39) At high population densities, an increase in population size causes the following to
decrease:
a. Aggressive behavior.
b. Emigration.
c. Spread of infectious diseases.
d. The age when an organism first reproduces.
e. The strength of the immune system
40) Select the statement that is true about human population growth:
a. We have not yet begun exponential population growth.
b. We have reached carrying capacity and our population size is stabilizing.
c. We have increased the carrying capacity of the places where we live.
d. Our growth is limited by our ability to live in only a few places on earth.
e. Our growth is limited by increasing death rates.
41) Select the statement that is false about ecological footprint:
a. One variable used to calculate the ecological footprint is the land required for
vegetation to absorb the carbon dioxide produced by burning fossil fuels.
b. Ecological footprint measures the amount of land and water needed by a nation to
produce all the resources it consumes and to absorb all the waste it generates.
c. Ecological footprint can be compared to the actual ecological capacity of a nation to
determine if that nation is in ecological deficit.
d. The United States is in ecological deficit.
e. The world in general is not yet in ecological deficit.
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42) Resource partitioning would be most likely to occur between:
a. populations of a predator and its prey that live in the same area.
b. populations of two species with similar needs that live in the same area.
c. populations of a flowering plant and its specialized insect pollinator.
d. populations of the same animal species that live in different areas.
e. populations of two species with similar needs that live in different areas.
43) Which of the following is not an example of a plant defense against herbivory?
a. Toxins such as nicotine.
b. Cryptic coloration.
c. Thorns.
d. Sticky fluids
e. Bark
44) Which of the following is an example of Batesian mimicry?
a. An insect that resembles a twig.
b. A butterfly that resembles a leaf.
c. A non-venomous snake that looks like a venomous snake.
d. A fawn with fur coloring that camouflages it in the forest.
e. A snapping turtle that uses its tongue to mimic a worm, thus attracting fish.
45) The mildest infectious diseases are those caused by agents that:
a. Can live long outside their host.
b. Are transmitted easily by vectors.
c. Are transmitted easily by contaminated water.
d. Kill their host quickly.
e. Need the host for the agent to be transmitted to a new host.
46) Select the statement that is false about the arms race (shown in a video played in class)
between the poisonous newt and the garter snake:
a. The newt is more poisonous than it needs to be to kill most of its predators.
b. Resistance to the newt toxins comes at a cost to the garter snake.
c. Newts increase in toxicity as a result of their conscious effort.
d. Resistance in snakes to the newt toxins results from evolution by natural selection.
e. The newt toxins are harmless if touched but harmful if ingested.
47) The role humans play in food webs:
a. Decomposers.
b. Primary producers.
c. Primary consumers.
d. Secondary consumers.
e. Both primary and secondary consumers
48) Select the statement about succession that is correct:
a. An example of primary succession is young trees growing in the place of fallen tree.
b. Disturbances delay the appearance of climax communities.
c. During succession, communities become simpler.
d. Climax communities do not change because climate does not change.
e. Pioneer species are usually specialists.
49) The main decomposers in ecosystems: 8
a. Animals and plants.
b. Bacteria and fungi.
c. Animals and fungi
d. Bacteria and plants
e. Plants and fungi
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