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BreakFree BreakFree
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9 years ago
An older adult client brought to the emergency department for bloody stools has been taking warfarin (Coumadin) post stroke. Initial diagnostic lab work reveals warfarin to be within therapeutic range. The daughter asks why the client has bloody stools if the lab work is normal. Which responses by the nurse are appropriate?


1. “Liver function declines during the aging process.”
2. “Decreased liver function results in decreased plasma proteins.”
3. “Decreased plasma proteins result in more free drug circulating.”
4. “Decreased plasma proteins lead to more binding sites, resulting in lower concentrations of drugs such as this one.”
5. “Higher levels of this drug are able to enter the blood–brain barrier, resulting in the toxic effects of bleeding.”
Textbook 
Pharmacology: Connections to Nursing Practice

Pharmacology: Connections to Nursing Practice


Edition: 3rd
Authors:
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First-year pharmacology student, representing MIT!
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nginngin
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9 years ago
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BreakFree Author
wrote...
9 years ago
This question gave me a hard time, problem solved with your reasoning lol
First-year pharmacology student, representing MIT!
wrote...
9 years ago
Glad to help, definitely don't give up, they're easy once you get a hang of it.
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