Immunology Class Exams

Just want to make the questions accessible to everyone:


MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) If a double positive T cell does not bind to MHC/peptide, it will avoid apoptosis.   1) A) True   B) False


2) What gene segments encode the variable region of ??(mu) chain?   2) A) V, D, J, and C gene segments
B) V, D, and J gene segments C) V, J, and C gene segments D) V and J gene segments


3) The genes that encode polymorphic MHC II molecules are HLA-DP, HLA-DM, and HLA-DQ.   3) A) True   B) False


4) What is the difference between immature and mature dendritic cells?   4) A) immature dendritic cells have more TLRs on the surface than mature dendritic cells
B) immature dendritic cells have more B7-1 and B7-2 (CD80/CD86) on the surface than mature dendritic cells
C) immature dendritic cells have more MHC molecules on the surface than mature dendritic cells
D) mature dendritic cells have more CD40 ligand on the surface than immature dendritic cells


5) The RSS sequences encode the most variable region of antibodies and TCRs.   5) A) True   B) False

6) A patient's haplotype includes the following gene:  HLA-B 12 34 .  What do we know about that    6)
gene?
A) the gene encodes the beta chain of a MHC II molecule
B) the gene can be detected by PCR primers in group 34
C) the gene encodes the beta chain of a MHC I molecule
D) more than one of the above are correct


7) How do antigen presenting cells activate naive helper T cells?   7) A) the naive T cell is primed by a cytotoxic T cell then a dendritic cell helps it differentiate
B) the naive T cell is primed by a dendritic cell and then a B cell helps it differentiate
C) the naive T cell is primed by a B cell then a dendritic cell helps it differentiate
D) the naive T cell is primed by a neutrophil then a dendritic cell helps it differentiate


8) How could a virus stop the helper T cell response?   8) A) inhibit production of cathepsin
B) inhibit production of the chaperone calnexin
C) inhibit production of TAP
D) more than one of the above would protect against helper T cells


9) What gene rearrangement occurs in pre-T cells?   9) A) V? rearranges to D?J?
B) V? rearranges to J?
C) V? rearranges to D?J?
D) V? rearranges to J?
 



1
 
10) Calreticulin is a chaperone that stabilized the entire MHC I molecule, versus other chaperones that stabilize just one of the polypeptides within a MHC I molecule.
A) True   B) False
 
10)
 
 
 
11) If you perform a cytotoxicity assay to find an immunodominant epitope, the sample that has the
most radioactivity in the cells and the least radioactivity in the supernatant contains the cells with
the immunodominant epitope.
A) True   B) False


12) The TCR lacks an ITAM in its cytoplasmic tail but CD3 has an ITAM and is able to activate signaling in a T cell after CD3 binds to its ligand on the antigen presenting cell.
A) True   B) False
 
11)





12)
 


13) What type of MHC molecule is able to present small peptides (ex: 7 amino acids long)?   13) A) the same MHC molecule that is used to activate helper T cells
B) the same MHC molecule that is stabilized by invariant chain
C) the same MHC molecule that contains ?2? (beta 2 microglobulin)
D) more than one of the above is correct.


14) Ig??and Ig??have a similar function as ??(zeta) chain.      14) A) True   B) False


15) Pentameric IgM usually has a higher avidity for a monovalent antigen than monomeric IgG.   15) A) True   B) False


 
16) A signal joint forms when RAG links the "12 spacer" in a RSS sequence directly to a "23 spacer" in another RSS sequence
A) True   B) False


17) Malaria is caused by infection with a parasite and is a difficult disease for the immune system to respond to because:
A) the parasite lacks MHC II B) the parasite lacks MHC I
C) the parasite infects red blood cells
D) the parasite has no protein antigens


18) If you wanted to use a FACS machine to sort out natural regulatory T cells from a thymus, you would want the machine to isolate the CD4+ CD25+ cells.
A) True   B) False
 
16)




17)








18)
 


19) Why do scientists use HAT media while making hydridomas?   19) A) unfused plasma cells can not synthesize DNA while growing in HAT media
B) unfusued mutant myeloma cells can not secrete antibodies while growing in HAT media
C) unfused mutant myeloma cells can not synthesize DNA while growing in HAT media
D) unfused plasma cells can not secrete antibodies while growing in HAT media








2
 
20) How could you stop the co-expression of IgM and IgD on the surface of a B cell?   20) A) by inhibiting Tdt activity
B) by inhibiting RAG in immature B cells
C) by removing the ??chain genes from the genome
D) by inhibiting RNA splicing enzymes


 
21) ?2 microglobulin helps to stabilize the alpha chain of the MHC molecule and also binds to CD8 on the T cell.
A) True   B) False
 
21)
 


22) Which of the following characteristics applies to small immune complexes?   22) A) small immune complexes are more common in patients with chronic infections  than large
immune complexes
B) small immune complexes are less likely to deposit in capillaries than large immune complexes
C) small immune complexes are more easily phagocytosed than large immune complexes
D) more than one of the above is correct


23) Pro-T cells can skip the other developmental stages and differentiate directly into mature ???T cells   23) A) True   B) False


24) If a mouse lacked Artemis, what would you expect to observe in the mouse?   24) A) a decreased number of MHC II molecules
B) a decreased number of CD34+ cells
C) a decreased number of MHC I molecules
D) a decreased number of CD19+ cells


25) To increase the affinity between a peptide and the TCR, one could:   25) A) change the non-anchor residues
B) change the beta-pleated sheets of the peptide binding motif
C) change the anchor residues
D) two of the above are correct


26) What is the difference between N and P nucleotides?   26) A) only one (either N or P nucleotides) are added during VDJ rearrangement
B) only one (either N or P nucleotides) are added during C gene rearrangement
C) only one (either N or P nucleotides) are added to DNA in pre-T cells
D) only one (either N or P nucleotides) are added by RAG


27) The ?1 region of MHC II binds to the TCR on CD4+ T cells but the ?1 region does not bind to CD4.   27) A) True   B) False
 
 
28) Finding a donor for a transplant is difficult because a donor's cells may only express the maternal
alleles of the MHC genes while the recipient's cells may only express the paternal alleles of the
MHC genes.
A) True   B) False
 
28)
 
 
 
29) Because of allelic exclusion, only one allele of the HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-B genes is expressed
in a cell.
A) True   B) False


3
 
29)
 
30) Peptides produced in the lysosome bind to MHC when CLIP is removed.   30) A) True   B) False
 
 
31) The pre-T? gene is produced without gene rearrangement and must be expressed in order for a T
cell to differentiate to the "double positive" stage.
A) True   B) False


32) When immature T cells bind to self peptide with high affinity, they die.  When immature T cells bind to foreign peptide with high affinity, they live.
A) True   B) False


33) Because of allelic exclusion, the allele for the ??heavy chain can not be expressed in immature B
cells.
A) True   B) False
 
31)




32)




33)
 


34) Something that MHC I and MHC II have in common is:   34) A) MHC I and MHC II each have two polypeptide chains that bind to the peptide being
presented
B) both types of genes (MHC I and MHC II) are transcribed following gene rearrangement
C) both MHC I and MHC II are stabilized on the surface by CD3
D) both MHC I and MHC II need to peptides in order to be transported to the surface of a cell


 
35) In the absence of AIRE, thymic epithelial cells would be unable to present central nervous system peptides.
A) True   B) False
 
35)
 


36) CD43+ B cells are located near the outer edge of the bone marrow that touches the hard bone.   36) A) True   B) False


37) The difference between CD5+ B cells and follicular B cells is:   37) A) CD5+ B cells are found in the spleen and follicular B cells are found in all secondary lympoid
organs
B) follicular B cells need antigen to be activated whereas CD5+ B cells do not need antigen to be activated
C) CD5+ B cells only activate ??   T cells whereas follicular B cells activate both ???and ???T cells
D) when first activated, follicular B cells secrete IgM whereas CD5+ B cells secrete IgD


38) What is the difference between "double positive" and "double negative" cells in the thymus?   38) A) only one (either "double positive" or "double negative" responds to chemokines produced by
thymic epithelial cells
B) only one (either "double positive" or "double negative" have the ??chain polypeptide
C) only one (either "double positive" or "double negative" are found in the cortex of the thymus
D) only one (either "double positive" or "double negative" expresses ?5


39) T cell receptors do not bind to MHC I or MHC II.      39) A) True   B) False


40) T cell activation is regulated when SLAM on the T cell binds to SLAM on antigen presenting cells.   40) A) True   B) False

41) If you were performing an ELISA to determine whether a patient had gp120, a HIV protein, in their blood, what would be the first step of the ELISA?
A) attaching anti-IgG to the well
B) attaching anti-gp120 to the well
C) attaching enzyme linked anti-gp120 to the well
D) attaching gp120 to the well
 
41)
 


42) What is the difference between the professional antigen presenting cells (APC)?   42) A) only one type of professional APC constituively expresses CD80 and CD86 (B7-1/B7-2)
B) only one type of professional APC is located in the spleen whereas all of the professional
APCs are located in the lymph nodes
C) only one type of professional APC has the molecules needed to activate cytotoxic T cells
D) the level of MHC only varies on one type of professional APC, the other types of professional
APCs never change the amount of MHC on their surface.


43) The difference between TCRs and antibodies is:   43) A) only one (either TCRs or antibodies) is able to recruit kinases to its cytoplasmic tail
B) only one (either TCRs or antibodies) is found in a membrane-bound form C) only one (either TCRs or antibodies) contains CDRs that bind to antigens D) only one (either TCRs or antibodies) binds to lipid antigens


 
44) Since   (kappa) gene segments are rearranged before (lambda) gene segments, more B cells express    chain.
A) True   B) False
 
44)
 


45) TAP is needed to guide peptides to the same MHC molecules that are stabilized by invariant chain.   45) A) True   B) False


46) EXTRA CREDIT: People with Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome lack:      46) A) MHC II   B) IgM   C) MHC I   D) AIRE

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) In order to change the direct binding between an antigen and an antibody, what would need to be    1)
changed in the antibody?
A) the framework regions
B) the constant region of the heavy chain
C) the Fab region
D) the constant region of the light chain
 
2) The main function of bone marrow stromal cells is to:   2)
A) phagocytose apoptotic cells
B) provide growth factors for developing cells
C) present antigens to mature T cells
D) replace damaged bone


3) Looking at the image in the front of the class, what region contains the same type of cells as those    3)
found in the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath?
A) A B) B C) C D) D
 
4) What is the function of MyD88?   4)
A) it is an adhesion molecule used by monocytes
B) it is a cytokine that stimulate inflammation
C) it is antigen receptor on innate immune cells
D) it is a signaling molecule associated with Toll-like Receptors


5) How do B cells switch isotypes?   5) A) more than one of the above is correct
B) they change their light chain constant region
C) they change their Fc regions
D) they change their heavy chain variable region
 
6) Knowing the function of regulatory T cells and also knowing how different cytokines affect the    6)
immune response, which of the following would most likely be produced by regulatory T cells?
A) IL-10
B) GM-CSF
C) IFN-?
D) TNF
 
7) What is the difference between a tolergen and an immunogen?   7)
A) more than one of the above is correct
B) only one (either tolergens or immunogens) binds directly to opsonin receptors
C) only one (either tolergens or immunogens) binds to receptors and activates immune cells
D) only one (either tolergens or immunogens) binds directly to receptors on B and T cells
 






 Fall 2009
 
Exam #1    WHITE VERSION    9/28/09

8) The antibody that is the most stable in the blood and survives the longest in the blood is:   8) A) the isotype that causes allergic reactions
B) the same isotype that forms pentamers when it is secreted
C) the isotype that is found on naive B cells
D) the same isotype that passes across the placenta into the fetal circulation


9) What is the purpose of early endosomes in neutrohils?   9) A) ligands and receptors dissociate in the early endosome and the receptors can return to the
plasma membrane
B) the early endosomal membranes contain the antigen receptors for LPS and peptidoglycan
C) the early endosomes are secreted to allow the neutrophils to chemotax
D) more than one of the above are correct


 
10) Where are lymphocytes and erythrocytes able to mix freely in sinuses (and not be confined to blood vessels)?
A) spleen
B) more than one of the above is correct
C) Peyer's Patches
D) lymph node
 
10)
 
 
 
11) In order for a neutrophil to extravasate, first     on the neutrophils bind to receptors on
the endothelial cells, and the neutrophil slows down.  Then,     _on the neutrophils binds to
ligands on endothelial cells, and the neutrophil stops.
A) integrins; L-selectin
B) integrins; P-selectin ligand
C) L-selectin; integrins
D) P-selectin ligand; integrins
 
11)
 
 
12) What aspect of the immune response did Edward Jenner's discoveries relate to?   12)
A) the relationship bewteen cytokines and septic shock
B) the development of memory cells
C) clinical uses for passive immunity
D) the production of IgE and activation of mast cells


13) What isotype of antibody is found in tears and mucus?   13) A) the same isotype that opsonizes antigens
B) the same isotype that forms a dimer when it is secreted
C) the same isotype that forms a pentamer when it is secreted
D) the same isotype that is responsible for allergic reactions


14) Which of the following functions is NOT performed by complement proteins?   14) A) opsonization of pathogens
B) activation of cytotoxic T cells
C) promoting inflammation
D) osmotic lysis of bacterial cells








2   Fall 2009
 
Exam #1    WHITE VERSION    9/28/09

15) Which of the following serve as opsonins?   15) A) Defensins
B) two of the above are opsonins
C) IgD
D) C-reactive protein


 
16) If a patient has had an intracellular infection (ex: virus) for about one week, the effector cell that is necessary to stop the infection is: (think about what needs to happen to infected cells)
A) neutrophils
B) helper T cells
C) cytotoxic T cells
D) B cells
 
16)
 
 
17) What is the difference between naive B cells and plasma cells?   17)
A) only one (either naive B cells or plasma cells) is located in the medulla of the thymus
B) only one (either naive B cells or plasma cells) expresses E-selectin and P-selectin
C) only one (either naive B cells or plasma cells) secretes IgD
D) only one (either naive B cells or plasma cells) can bind to high endothelial venules


18) What is the difference between macrophages and neutrophils?   18) A) only one (either macrophages or neutrophils) undergoes clonal expansion following antigen
stimulation
B) only one (either macrophages or neutrophils) expresses Toll-like Receptors
C) only one (either macrophages or neutrophils) stimulates development of blood vessels
D) only one (either macrophages or neutrophils) undergoes the respiratory burst


19) If you look at the image at the front of the class, where would you expect to find germinal centers?   19) A) A
B) B C) C D) D


 
20) During development of the myeloid lineage,     develop when progenitors are exposed to the cytokine     _.
A) natural killer cells; IL-10
B) monocytes, GM-CSF
C) B cells, IL-7
D) dendritic cells, IL-7
 
20)
 
 
21) The majority of M cells are located on the edge ofthe marginal zone   21)
A) True   B) False


 
22) If someone has a large infection, one would expect the number of secondary follicles in the patient to increase.
A) True   B) False
 
22)
 
 
23) The hinge and the J chain are used by all antibodies to provide flexibility.   23)
A) True   B) False




3   Fall 2009
 
Exam #1    WHITE VERSION    9/28/09

 
24) The antigen receptors on innate imune cells do not bind directly to self antigens, but the antigen receptors on adaptive immune cells may bind directly to self antigen.
A) True   B) False
 
24)
 
 
 
25) Blood vessels carry naive lymphocytes to all secondary lymphoid organs and lymphatic vessels
carry antigens to all secondary lymphoid organs
A) True   B) False
 
25)
 


26) The CDRs are located within the beta-pleated sheets of the immunoglobulin domains.   26) A) True   B) False


27) TLR2 binds to peptidoglycan and TLR5 binds to bacterial flagellin   27) A) True   B) True


 
28) If a histologist looks at lung tissue and sees a large number of neutrophils in the lungs, the histologist will label the tissue as "inflammed".
A) True   B) False
 
28)
 
 
 
29) In additionto providing a physican barrier, epithelial cells also secrete molecules that are directly
toxic to certain pathogens.
A) True   B) False


30) The thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct allow activated T cells to enter the superior vena cava of the heart.
A) True   B) False
 
29)




30)
 
 
31) The B cells responding to blood-borne infections would most likely be found in the white pulp   31)
A) True   B) False


 
32) During septic shock, a patient's blood pressure is extremely high while their blood sugar level is extremely low.
A) True   B) False


33) After their receptors bind to antigens, dendritic cells proliferate and then differentiate into effector cells.
A) True   B) False
 
32)




33)
 


34) Activated T cells and neutrophils express CXCR3, which is not expressed by activated B cells   34) A) True   B) False
 
 
35) The genes for the mannose receptor and the T cell receptor are both encoded in the germline, but
the genes for the T cell receptor are not expressed until T cells complete development.
A) True   B) False


36) In response to TNF, endothelial cells dilate (get bigger) and the smooth muscles around blood vessels contract.
A) True   B) False
 
35)




36)
 




4   Fall 2009
 
Exam #1    WHITE VERSION    9/28/09

37) Innate immune cells phagocytose antigens, adaptive immune cells do not phagocytose.   37) A) True   B) False


38) Memory B cells and memory macrophages proliferate more quickly than naive cells.   38) A) True   B) False


39) The first region of an antibody that forms during B cell development is the ?    (mu) heavy chain?   39) A) True   B) False


40) The draining lymph nodes are the lymph nodes closest to the primary lymphoid organs.   40) A) True   B) False


 
41) Active immunity involves proteins secreted by adaptive immune cells whereas passive immunity involves proteins secreted by innate immune cells.
A) True   B) False
 
41)
 


42) Hassal's Corpuscles are found in an organ that shrinks after puberty   42) A) True   B) False


43) TGF-? and IL-10 have the same effect on the immune response   43) A) True   B) False


44) Without phagocyte oxidase, natural kills cells can not produce reactive oxygen species.   44) A) True   B) False

45) And F(ab')2 fragment lacks the constant regions of the light chains and heavy chains.    45) A) True   B) False

 
46) EXTRA CREDIT:
A pathogen that is not destroyed by macrophages but actually infects and lives inside macrophages
is:
 
46)
 
A) E. coli
B) Helminths
C) Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
D) Hepatitis A