Chapter 3 - Understanding Nutrition 13th Edition by Whitney

Chapter 3 – Digestion, Absorption, and Transport Multiple Choice 1. The process by which food is broken down into absorbable components is called a. digestion. b. absorption. c. excretion. d. mastication. 2. What is mastication? a. The act of chewing b. The act of swallowing c. The wave-like contraction of the intestines d. The wave-like contraction of the esophagus 3. What is the lumen of the GI tract? a. The epiglottis b. The capillaries c. The inner space d. The mucosal surface 4. In what organ does the digestion process begin? a. Mouth b. Stomach c. Duodenum d. Jejunum-ileum 5. What is umami? a. The flavor of monosodium glutamate b. The opening between the duodenum and jejunum c. The intestinal enzyme that hydrolyzes fish proteins d. An intestinal enzyme that hydrolyzes dietary nucleic acids 6. Which of the following is NOT considered one of the basic taste sensations? a. Hot b. Sour c. Salty d. Bitter 7. The food flavor enhancer monosodium glutamate is believed by some scientists to promote a unique taste sensation known as a. sushi. b. umami. c. chymos. d. sashimi. 8. Which of the following is a feature of the taste buds? a. They react only with particles in solution b. They are located throughout the oral cavity c. They produce amylase but not pepsin or lipase d. A single taste bud can sense only one of the basic taste sensations at a time 9. Which of the following describes the anatomy of the gastrointestinal tract? a. A vat-like vessel b. A rigid, solid tunnel c. A flexible muscular tube d. A firm, duct-like channel 10. Which of the following is NOT a sphincter muscle? a. Anus b. Cardiac c. Duodenum d. Ileocecal valve 11. Where is the epiglottis located? a. Throat b. Bile duct c. Pancreatic duct d. Lower esophagus 12. What part of the GI tract prevents a person from choking while swallowing? a. Mouth b. Epiglottis c. Pyloric sphincter d. Upper esophageal sphincter 13. What structure functions to prevent entrance of food into the trachea? a. Tongue b. Epiglottis c. Cardiac sphincter d. Trachea sphincter 14. Which of the following is a characteristic of the appendix? a. It ferments fiber b. It stores lymph cells c. It slows down peristalsis d. It stores preformed stools 15. What is a bolus? a. Enzyme that hydrolyzes starch b. Portion of food swallowed at one time c. Device used to analyze the contents of the stomach d. Sphincter muscle separating the stomach from the small intestine 16. A bolus is conducted past the diaphragm through the a. epiglottis. b. stomach. c. esophagus. d. large intestine. 17. What is one function of the pyloric sphincter? a. Secretes acid into the stomach b. Secretes hormones into the stomach c. Prevents the contents of the small intestine from backing up into the stomach d. Prevents the contents of the small intestine from emptying too quickly into the colon 18. What structure controls the passage of material from the small intestine to the large intestine? a. Pyloric valve b. Ileocecal valve c. Colonic sphincter d. Jejunal sphincter 19. Into what region of the intestinal tract does the stomach empty? a. Ileum b. Cecum c. Jejunum d. Duodenum 20. After swallowing, in what order does food pass through the regions of the GI tract? a. Jejunum, duodenum, colon, ileum, rectum b. Jejunum, ileum, duodenum, rectum, colon c. Stomach, duodenum, jejunum, ileum, colon d. Stomach, jejunum, duodenum, colon, ileum 21. Which of the following is a description of chyme? a. The semisolid mass of undigested food that passes through the ileocecal valve b. A semiliquid mass of partially digested food released by the stomach into the small intestine c. The mixture of pancreatic juices containing enzymes for digestion of the macronutrients d. A thick, viscous material synthesized by mucosal cells for protection against digestive juices 22. What is the primary function of the rectum? a. Controls functioning of the colon b. Absorbs minerals from waste materials c. Stores waste materials prior to evacuation d. Absorbs excess water from waste materials 23. What is the name given to partially digested food in the stomach? a. Chyme b. Liquid food c. Gastric mucus d. Semiliquid mass 24. What structure separates the colon from the small intestine? a. Pylorus b. Ileocecal valve c. Gastric retainer d. Rectal sphincter 25. Which of the following is a feature of peristalsis? a. It remains quiet between meals when the GI tract is empty b. It occurs along the GI tract at a constant rate when food is present c. It involves parallel and circular muscles found in the walls of the intestines but not the stomach d. It consists of wavelike muscular contractions resulting from alternate tightening and relaxing of circular muscles and longitudinal muscles 26. What structure controls the release of material from the stomach to the small intestine? a. Ileocecal valve b. Pyloric sphincter c. Diaphragmatic valve d. Esophageal sphincter 27. What is meant by the term “motility” in reference to the GI tract? a. The efficiency of lymph transport b. The ability of the GI tract muscles to move c. The speed of gastric digestive juice release d. The speed of pancreatic digestive juice release 28. During the process of digestion, at what point does the stomach begin to release chyme? a. When the fluid to solid ratio is 3 to 1 b. When the chyme is liquefied c. Within 15 minutes of gastrin release d. Within 5 to 10 minutes of starting a meal 29. Among the GI tract organs, which has the strongest muscles? a. Stomach b. Small intestine c. Large intestine d. Cardiac sphincter 30. Which of the following is a feature of the muscular actions of digestion? a. Peristalsis begins first in the stomach upon the initiation of the swallowing reflex b. The colon has the thickest and strongest muscles of the GI organs to withstand the pressure of stool evacuation c. The jejunum has a third layer of diagonal muscles to enhance contraction and relaxation phases for enhanced digestion d. Segmentation in the intestines allows periodic squeezing along its length, resulting in momentary reversal of the movement of intestinal contents 31. Which of the following is a function of sphincter muscles? a. Control peristalsis b. Grind large food particles c. Secrete digestive juices into the GI tract d. Control the passage of food through the GI tract 32. The lower esophageal sphincter is also known as the a. reflux restrainer. b. cardiac sphincter. c. perihepatic control valve. d. reverse peristalsis inhibitor. 33. What is reflux? a. Hard, dry, stools b. Backward flow of chyme c. Soft, poorly formed stools d. The mixture of bile and pancreatic juice 34. What structure prevents reflux of stomach contents? a. Pepsinogen b. Gastric mucosa c. Upper esophageal sphincter d. Lower esophageal sphincter 35. How many sphincters does the anus contain? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 36. During digestion of a meal, how many times does the pyloric sphincter open in 10 minutes time? a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 20 37. What types of enzymes are responsible for hydrolyzing the proteins in foods? a. Lipases b. Salivases c. Proteases d. Carbohydrases 38. Which of the following is NOT true about digestion? a. Salivary glands contribute little to digestion b. The pyloric sphincter opens about 3 times a minute c. Saliva contains enzymes that digest sugars, fats, and proteins d. The liver and pancreas contribute essential fluids to the digestive process 39. What is the function of mucus in the stomach? a. Emulsifies fats b. Neutralizes stomach acid c. Activates pepsinogen to pepsin d. Protects stomach cells from gastric juices 40. What is a function of hydrochloric acid in the stomach? a. Absorbs water b. Inhibits peristalsis c. Neutralizes the food mass d. Creates an optimum acidity 41. Which of the following best describes the normal pH of the stomach? a. Very acidic b. Slightly acidic c. Neutral d. Slightly alkaline 42. Why is there little or no digestion of starch in the stomach? a. Mucus inhibits starch breakdown b. Stomach enzymes are dysfunctional c. Starch should not be eaten with protein d. Salivary enzymes do not work in an acid environment 43. What is the fate of any enzymes that are present in the foods we eat? a. Hydrolyzed in the GI tract b. Absorbed intact by the stomach c. Absorbed intact by the small intestine d. Passed through the GI tract and excreted in the stool 44. What substance protects the stomach lining from damage due to digestive juices? a. Water b. Mucus c. Pepsinogen d. Dietary fats 45. Which of the following is NOT a function of hydrochloric acid in digestion/absorption? a. It kills bacteria b. It activates pancreatic lipase c. It activates a proteolytic enzyme d. It promotes hydrolysis of dietary protein 46. Which part of the GI tract contains highly acidic digestive juices? a. Colon b. Ileum c. Stomach d. Duodenum 47. The usual pH of gastric juice is approximately a. 2. b. 4. c. 6. d. 7. 48. What is an important function of mucus? a. Helps solubilize bile b. Stabilizes pancreatic enzymes c. Enhances absorption of vitamin B12 d. Protects the stomach walls from digestion 49. After someone chews and swallows a portion of food, what becomes of the salivary amylase in the stomach? a. It is inactivated by gastric juice b. It continues to hydrolyze starches c. It binds to pepsin and catalyzes proteolytic activity d. It passes into the duodenum where the alkaline pH stimulates carbohydrase activity 50. Your cousin Miguel is extolling the virtues of his new dietary supplement. He says that it contains enzymes that will make him healthier, and he asks for your opinion. You assure him that the enzymes a. will increase the digestibility of the foods he eats. b. could likely interfere with the enzymes secreted by his pancreas. c. could likely overload his gastrointestinal tract and lead to diarrhea. d. are proteins and proteins are destroyed in the gastrointestinal tract. 51. Which of the following body organs does not secrete digestive enzymes? a. Liver b. Stomach c. Pancreas d. Salivary glands 52. The process by which bile acts on fat so enzymes can attack the fat is known as a. condensation. b. emulsification. c. enzymification. d. phosphorylation. 53. A solution with a pH of 7 is how many times more alkaline than one with a pH of 6? a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 100 54. The purpose of bicarbonate in the digestive process is to a. raise the pH of chyme. b. lower the pH of chyme. c. hydrolyze large peptides. d. provide a little fizz in your life. 55. After the pancreatic juices have mixed with chyme in the small intestine, which of the following describes the pH of the resulting mixture? a. Very acidic b. Moderately acidic c. Strongly alkaline d. Approximately neutral 56. Which of the following would NOT be acted upon by pancreatic juice secreted into the intestinal tract? a. Fats b. Fiber c. Proteins d. Carbohydrates 57. Which of the following is NOT a component of pancreatic juice? a. Bile b. Water c. Lipase d. Sodium bicarbonate 58. Which of the following is NOT produced from colonic fermentation of certain fibers? a. Gas b. Water c. Secretin d. Small fat fragments 59. What is one function of the gallbladder? a. Stores bile b. Produces bile c. Reabsorbs water and salts d. Performs enzymatic digestion 60. An example of an important function of the colon would be its absorption of a. bile. b. fats. c. salts. d. hormones. 61. Which of the following is NOT a typical component of stools? a. Water b. Fiber c. Starch d. Bacteria 62. Which of the following classes of nutrients requires the least amount of digestion? a. Lipids b. Proteins c. Vitamins d. Carbohydrates 63. Which of the following nutrients requires the least amount of digestion? a. Starch b. Calcium c. Animal fats d. Animal proteins 64. Which of the following is a significant property of dietary fiber? a. Inhibits protease activity b. Promotes water retention of stools c. Inhibits large intestinal contractions d. Promotes vitamin excretion in stools 65. Which of the following is generally NOT digested but does stimulate intestinal muscle contractions? a. Bile b. Fiber c. Starch d. Amylase 66. What is the function of bile? a. Emulsifies fats b. Initiates digestion of protein c. Enhances absorption of complex carbohydrates d. Protects the stomach and small intestine from the action of hydrochloric acid 67. Which of the following is an important function of the intestinal villi crypts? a. Synthesis of chylomicrons b. Secretion of juices into the small intestine c. Synthesis of fragments of fat for use by the colon d. Transport of fat-soluble nutrients into the circulation 68. What is the name of the projections on the inner surface of the small intestine? a. Villi b. Cilia c. Mesenteric vessels d. Vascular projectiles 69. Which of the following is a function of the intestinal microvilli? a. Secretion of bile salts b. Secretion of digestive acid c. Transport of nutrient molecules d. Transport of pancreatic enzymes 70. What is the primary site for absorption of nutrients? a. Crypt b. Villus c. Microvillus d. Macrovillus 71. Which of the following are found on the microvilli and function to break apart small nutrients into the final products of digestion? a. Mucus b. Micelles c. Enzymes d. Hormones 72. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of absorption of nutrients by intestinal cells? a. Diffusion b. Transmigration c Active transport d. Facilitated diffusion 73. After sitting through a two-hour lecture in math, your stomach is growling. You have just learned about surface area and its role in mathematics. Your classmate points out that surface area is also an integral part of the absorption of nutrients a. due to the makeup of the gastric mucosa. b. due to the relatively large size of food protein molecules. c. through the presence of the enormous number of villi and microvilli. d. resulting from the large size of pancreatic enzymes on which nutrients become digested. 74. To assist the process of digestion and absorption, it is usually best to a. eat several snacks per day so the system is not overwhelmed. b. combine different food types to enhance the absorption process. c. avoid eating meat and fruit at the same meal to prevent competition. d. take enzyme pills or powder periodically so the system can rest and rejuvenate. 75. When nutrients are transported from intestinal epithelial cells to the vascular system, what organ is first to receive them? a. Liver b. Heart c. Lungs d. Kidneys 76. Which of the following products of digestion is NOT normally released directly into the bloodstream? a. Fats b. Minerals c. Vitamin C d. Carbohydrates 77. What is the first vessel to receive absorbed water-soluble vitamins? a. Hepatic vein b. Mesenteric vein c. Mesenteric artery d. Hepatic portal vein 78. What vessel carries blood from the liver to the heart? a. Aorta b. Hepatic vein c. Thoracic duct d. Hepatic portal vein 79. The hepatic portal vein empties into the a. liver. b. heart. c. pancreas. d. hepatic vein. 80. Exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste materials takes place across the walls of small vessels called a. ducts. b. venules. c. arterioles. d. capillaries. 81. What is the most metabolically active organ? a. Liver b. Spleen c. Stomach d. Pancreas 82. When alcohol and barbiturates are ingested, they are absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and transported first to the a. liver. b. heart. c. spleen. d. kidneys. 83. Which of the following conducts lymph into the vascular system? a. Villi b. Mesentery c. Subclavian vein d. Common bile duct 84. Which of the following is a feature of the lymphatic system? a. It carries fats away from the intestines b. It contains a fluid with a composition similar to pancreatic fluid c. It circulates via a one-way pump at the junction to the subclavian vein d. It serves to transport both fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins to the vascular system 85. What is the first major organ to receive nutrients that are absorbed into the lymph? a. Liver b. Heart c. Spleen d. Pancreas 86. What are lacteals? a. Gastric secretory cells b. Products of milk digestion c. Intestinal lymphatic vessels d. Products of colonic fermentation 87. Immediately after absorption, what circulatory system carries the fat-soluble vitamins and large fats? a. Vascular b. Mesenteric c. Lymphatic d. Enterohepatic 88. Approximately how many different species and subspecies of bacteria live in a healthy GI tract? a. 20 b. 100 c. 400 d. 1,000 89. What is the general composition of lymph? a. A light-red fluid that stores fat-soluble vitamins b. A transparent yellowish fluid that contains no red blood cells or platelets c. A white fluid that contains probiotics and appears at the site of infections d. A greenish fluid that contains abundant platelets and water-soluble vitamins 90. Certain types of fibers and complex proteins that are degraded by GI bacteria are called a. prebiotics. b. probiotics. c. Lactobaccili. d. Streptococci. 91. The living bacteria found in yogurt are known as a. probiotics. b. prebiotics. c. postbiotics. d. zymobiotics. 92. Microorganisms in food that are viable when consumed and that are beneficial to health are known as a. probiotics. b. prebiotics. c. postbiotics. d. zymobiotics. 93. When consumed on a regular basis, which of the following foods promotes healthful changes in the microflora of the GI tract? a. Fish b. Yogurt c. Poultry d. Iron-rich foods 94. The intestinal flora are comprised primarily of a. villi. b. bacteria. c. mucosa. d. probiotics. 95. What is the primary role of the normal, thriving intestinal bacterial population? a. Helps degrade meat and dairy proteins b. Helps prevent infectious bacteria from attacking the system c. Synthesizes vitamin D, which can be absorbed into the body d. Synthesizes several amino acids, which can be absorbed into the body 96. Which of the following is known to be produced by small intestinal bacteria? a. Mucus b. Chyme c. Glucose d. Vitamins 97. The maintenance of the body’s constant internal conditions is guided by the principle known as a. homeostasis. b. bios systems. c. central control. d. hormone balance. 98. What two systems coordinate all digestive/ absorptive processes? a. Enzyme and thoracic b. Portal and lymphatic c. Nervous and endocrine d. Transport and circulatory 99. What is the normal pH of stomach juice? a. 0.25-0.50 b. 1.5-1.7 c. 7.0-7.5 d. 9.5-9.75 100. Which of the following regulates the pH of the stomach? a. Gastrin b. Insulin c. Secretin d. Cholecystokinin 101. Which of the following substances functions to control the release of hydrochloric acid to prevent excessive acidity? a. Fiber b. Gastrin c. Secretin d. Bicarbonate 102. Which of the following stimulates the pancreas to release bicarbonate-rich juice? a. Gastrin b. Secretin c. Glucagon d. Gastric-inhibitory peptide 103. Which of the following is a characteristic of pancreatic digestive enzyme function? a. The major hormone controlling the release of pancreatic enzymes is gastrin b. The release of pancreatic enzymes is controlled primarily by a pancreatic sphincter c. The pancreas can increase the activity of fat-degrading enzymes in response to more fat in the diet d. In general, the amounts of digestive enzymes secreted by the pancreas remain constant over a wide range of nutrient intakes 104. Which of the following nutrients requires the greatest time for digestion? a. Fats b. Water c. Minerals d. Carbohydrates 105. What is/are the primary target organ(s) for the action of cholecystokinin? a. Pancreas only b. Stomach only c. Gallbladder only d. Gallbladder and pancreas 106. Which of the following is NOT among the functions of cholecystokinin? a. Triggering release of bile b. Slowing GI tract motility c. Triggering release of gastrin d. Triggering release of pancreatic fluid 107. What are the usual consequences of removing a diseased gallbladder? a. Inability to digest fats b. Some damage to the pancreas c. Inability to digest carbohydrates d. Delivery of bile directly to the small intestine 108. Jenny has just has undergone a cholecystectomy. After recovery, Jenny will no longer a. be able to manufacture bile. b. have an extra reservoir for bile. c. be able to digest carbohydrates. d. have an extra reservoir for pancreatic juices. 109. The presence of fat in the intestines stimulates cells of the intestinal wall to release a. lipase. b. gastrin. c. secretin. d. cholecystokinin. 110. Nancy is having difficulty digesting fatty foods. After seeing her doctor, who found no evidence of inflammation, she says that she must now see a specialist to determine why she is having trouble releasing bile from her gallbladder. What hormone is most likely functioning improperly for Nancy? a. CCK b. Gastrin c. Secretin d. Lipostimulin 111. What substance controls the release of bile into the small intestine? a. Gastrin b. Secretin c. Prozymogen d. Cholecystokinin 112. What is a zymogen? a. An intestinal hormone b. An inactive enzyme precursor c. A defective pancreatic enzyme d. An inflamed small intestinal outpocketing 113. Which of the following is associated with the presence of fat in the GI tract? a. Inhibition of mucosal enzyme activities b. Slowing of the process of digestion and absorption c. Inhibition of thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin absorption d. Stimulation and hastening of digestion and absorption 114. The chief purpose of the gallbladder is to store a substance that is required for the assimilation of dietary a. fats only. b. carbohydrates only. c. fats and carbohydrates only. d. proteins, fats, and carbohydrates. 115. All of the following are important enterogastrone hormones EXCEPT a. pepsin. b. secretion. c. cholecystokinin. d. gastric-inhibitory peptide. 116. A decrease in the flow of blood to the intestines is known as a. gut stasis. b. gut dysmotility. c. intestinal stroke. d. intestinal ischemia. 117. What is intestinal ischemia? a. Reduced blood flow to the intestines b. Chronic episodes of reverse peristalsis c. Construction of intestinal lymph supply d. Inflammation of two or more sphincter muscles 118. Which of the following results from reverse peristalsis? a. Gas b. Choking c. Vomiting d. Diarrhea 119. What is the very first thing you should do if you suspect someone is choking on food? a. Ask the person to speak b. Perform the Heimlich maneuver c. Strike the person sharply on the back d. Attempt to dislodge the food with your fingers 120. Choking occurs when a piece of food becomes firmly lodged in the a. larynx. b. trachea. c. epiglottis. d. esophagus. 121. The Heimlich maneuver may be helpful in conditions associated with a. choking. b. vomiting. c. heartburn. d. constipation. 122. In what population group are choking and vomiting most serious? a. Infants b. Teenagers c. Elderly females d. Obese 123. A person with chronic diarrhea is at risk for which of the following? a. Dehydration b. Constipation c. Peptic ulcers d. Heimlich’s disease 124. Inflammation of the large intestine is known as a. colitis. b. indigestion. c. hemorrhoiditis. d. acid dysregulation. 125. What organ is affected by colitis? a. Stomach b. Pancreas c. Gall bladder d. Large intestine 126. Which of the following is a feature of irritable bowel syndrome? a. Abdominal discomfort is usually mild b. Effective treatment includes peppermint oil c. Constipation rather than diarrhea is the major adverse effect d. A combination of stress plus certain foods is needed to trigger an attack 127. When ingested in large quantities, the sugar alternative sorbitol and the fat alternative olestra are known to induce a. diarrhea. b. vomiting. c. pancreatitis. d. celiac disease. 128. A diagnosis of constipation is made when a person’s number of bowel movements per week first drops to under a. one. b. two. c. three. d. five. 129. A person on a low-fiber diet is at increased risk for experiencing elevated rectal vein pressure leading to formation of a. reflux. b. hiccups. c. hemorrhoids. d. peptic ulcers. 130. One of the signs of constipation is a. increased thirst. b. inability to digest fats. c. less than 1 bowel movement per day. d. fewer than 3 bowel movements per week. 131. People are said to be constipated when they experience a. painful or difficult bowel movements. b. reflux more than three times a month. c. more than a day without a bowel movement. d. soft or watery bowel movements with little notice. 132. Colonic irrigation is a popular practice for treatment of a. belching. b. constipation. c. rapid peristalsis. d. explosive diarrhea. 133. Which of the following is NOT an effective therapy for constipation? a. Increasing water intake b. Decreasing fiber intake c. Increasing physical activity d. Responding promptly to the defecation signal 134. Which of the following is most likely to result from insufficient intake of fiber? a. Diarrhea b. Bloating c. Constipation d. Pancreatitis 135. In general, which of the following is associated with the fewest adverse effects from the treatment of constipation in adults? a. Taking an enema b. Taking a laxative c. Ingestion of prunes d. Ingestion of mineral oil 136. Which of the following is a common cause of constipation? a. High-fat diet b. High-carbohydrate diet c. Lack of physical activity d. Excessive mineral oil intake 137. All of the following dietary measures are known to help relieve constipation EXCEPT a. eating fiber. b. eating prunes. c. eating less fat. d. drinking more water. 138. What is the primary cause for belching? a. Swallowing air b. Viral infections c. Eating spicy foods d. Drinking alcoholic beverages 139. All of the following are common causes of heartburn EXCEPT a. eating too slowly. b. drinking too much. c. wearing tight clothes. d. bending over after a meal. 140. Jim went for his annual medical check-up and was diagnosed with heartburn. Which of the following actions is most likely causing Jim’s condition? a. Inhibition of peristalsis b. Overactive cardiac sphincter activity c. Overactive pyloric sphincter activity d. Defective lower esophageal sphincter activity 141. People who have frequent, regular bouts of heartburn and indigestion have a medical condition known as a. colitis. b. watery stools. c. lymphatic malabsorption. d. gastroesophageal reflux. 142. Which of the following is a prominent feature of the expulsion of gas from the anus? a. It is normal b. It can usually be reduced by increasing fiber intake c. It is usually worsened by consuming foods rich in fats d. The gas expelled is composed mostly of sulfur dioxide 143. Over-the-counter antacids are best used to treat a. excessive gas. b. excessive belching. c. occasional acid indigestion. d. active ulcers in the stomach. 144. Which of the following nutrients is most associated with increased production of intestinal gas? a. Iron b. Fats c. Proteins d. Carbohydrates 145. Untreated gastroesophageal reflux increases the risk for the more serious condition known as a. Graves’ disease. b. Sinclair’s gastrum. c. Barrett’s esophagus. d. Zollinger-Ellison cancer. 146. The primary treatment for ulcer caused by the presence of H. pylori is a. fiber. b. surgery. c. antacids. d. antibiotics. 147. Which of the following is NOT a feature of stomach acid? a. Its secretion is stimulated by ingestion of regular coffee b. Its secretion is stimulated by ingestion of decaffeinated coffee c. It destroys most of the bacteria entering the stomach from food ingestion d. Its potentially destructive action on stomach cells is prevented by the presence of bile 148. Which of the following is NOT an important issue in the treatment or management of existing ulcers? a. Alcohol intake should be curtailed b. Antibiotics are frequently administered c. Gastric acid release should be suppressed d. Anti-inflammatory drug use should be curtailed 149. A peptic ulcer resides in the a. stomach only. b. duodenum only. c. stomach or duodenum only. d. esophagus and stomach only. 150. Which of the following is NOT among the chief causes of ulcers? a. H. pylori infection b. Excessive caffeine consumption c. Regular use of anti-inflammatory drugs d. Disorders that cause high gastric acid output 151. A person with chronic GI bleeding is at risk for deficiency of a. HCl. b. iron. c. bile. d. protein. 152. Which of the following is NOT a major cause of ulcer formation? a. Bacterial infection b. Excessive use of antacids c. Excessive gastric acid secretion d. Use of certain anti-inflammatory medicines 153. Which of the following is least likely to aggravate an existing ulcer? a. Beer b. Raw carrots c. Regular coffee d. Decaffeinated coffee 154. The organism H. pylori has been identified as one of the major causes of a. hiccups. b. hemorrhoids. c. diverticulosis. d. gastric ulcers. 155. The most common cause for the development of ulcers is a. infection from H. pylori. b. excessive consumption of spicy foods. c. failure to adapt to a high-stress lifestyle. d. prolonged excessive consumption of hot beverages. Matching 1. Prevents food from entering the windpipe when swallowing 2. Organ that stores lymph cells 3. Controls the entry of chyme into the duodenum 4. Controls the entry of chyme into the colon 5. Enzyme that digests starch 6. Substance that helps make or break a chemical bond 7. A component of gastric juice 8. Organ that releases bile into the small intestine 9. Organ that synthesizes bile 10. Fingerlike projection of small intestinal lining 11. Type of cell that secretes mucus 12. Absorption mechanism that requires energy 13. Absorption mechanism that does not require energy 14. Connects an artery to a vein 15. Vessel that carries blood from liver to heart 16. Vessel that carries blood from GI tract to liver 17. Carries fat-soluble vitamins 18. Hormone that signals release of pancreatic bicarbonate 19. Hormone that triggers release of gastric acid 20. Hormone that signals release of bile A. Liver B. Villus C. Goblet D. Pylorus E. Enzyme F. Gastrin G. Secretin H. Capillary I. Appendix J. Diffusion K. Epiglottis L. Gallbladder M. Carbohydrase N. Hepatic portal vein O Hepatic vein P. Ileocecal valve Q Cholecystokinin R. Active transport S. Hydrochloric acid T. Lymphatic system Essay 1. What factors are involved in expressing taste sensations? 2. Name and describe the functions of the four major sphincter muscles that divide the GI tract into its principal regions. 3. Describe the major events of digestion that occur in the mouth, stomach, and small intestine. 4. Explain the differences between peristalsis and segmentation. 5. What are the effects on colonic function from insufficient fluid intake, insufficient fiber intake, or intestinal infection? 6. What is the function of hydrochloric acid and why is it necessary in the process of digestion? 7. Discuss the defenses of the GI tract against bacteria that cause infection. 8. Describe anatomical features of the small intestine that facilitate absorption. 9. Discuss the validity of the art of “food combining” to enhance digestion/absorption. 10. Describe the parts of the vascular system that are involved in digestion and absorption of water-soluble and fat-soluble nutrients. 11. Compare the properties of prebiotics and probiotics. Give examples of each type. 12. List several beneficial roles of the intestinal flora. 13. Discuss the role of bacteria in the GI tract and factors that help regulate their proliferation. 14. What factors govern the opening and closing of the GI tract sphincters? 15. What is the most likely explanation for the observation that a person may experience “upset digestion” upon changing the diet? 16. Name and describe the functions of three major hormones involved in digestion/absorption. 17. Discuss the response of the pancreas (enzyme secretion) upon exposure to diets differing in the amounts of protein, fat, and carbohydrate. 18. Provide 2 examples of a feedback mechanism in digestion/absorption. 19. Why does the pancreas not “digest itself”? 20. Describe physical and emotional factors that affect the health of the digestive system. 21. What are common factors that initiate choking? What are the preferred methods to assist a person who is choking? What foods are commonly associated with choking? 22. Describe the similarities and differences in fluid and nutrient losses between vomiting and diarrhea. 23. What are the effects of chronic or severe vomiting? 24. Describe four common digestive problems and their recommended treatments or therapies. 25. What are the characteristics of and treatments for irritable bowel syndrome? 26. Discuss common treatments for constipation. Why do people react differently to the same treatment? 27. Why do people get their colons irrigated and what are the side effects? 28. Describe the conditions diverticulosis and diverticulitis. 29. In the treatment of heartburn or “acid indigestion,” what therapies are recommended and which are not? 30. Describe the three major causes of peptic ulcers and the recommended therapies. Answer Key (ANS = correct answer, REF = page reference, DIF = difficulty, OBJ = learning objective) Multiple Choice 1. ANS: a REF: 69 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 2. ANS: a REF: 71 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 3. ANS: c REF: 70 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 4. ANS: a REF: 71 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 5. ANS: a REF: 71-72 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 6. ANS: a REF: 71 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 7. ANS: b REF: 71-72 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.1 8. ANS: a REF: 71 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 9. ANS: c REF: 70 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 10. ANS: c REF: 70 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 11. ANS: a REF: 72 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 12. ANS: b REF: 72 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.1 13. ANS: b REF: 72 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 14. ANS: b REF: 70 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 15. ANS: b REF: 72 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 16. ANS: c REF: 72 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 17. ANS: c REF: 73 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 18. ANS: b REF: 73 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 19. ANS: d REF: 72 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 20. ANS: c REF: 72 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.1 21. ANS: b REF: 72 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 22. ANS: c REF: 71 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 23. ANS: a REF: 72 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 24. ANS: b REF: 72 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 25. ANS: d REF: 73 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.1 26. ANS: b REF: 73 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 27. ANS: b REF: 73 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 28. ANS: b REF: 73 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 29. ANS: a REF: 73 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 30. ANS: d REF: 73 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 31. ANS: d REF: 73 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 32. ANS: b REF: 73 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 33. ANS: b REF: 73 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 34. ANS: d REF: 73 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 35. ANS: b REF: 73 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 36. ANS: c REF: 73 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.1 37. ANS: c REF: 74 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.1 38. ANS: c REF: 74 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 39. ANS: d REF: 74-75 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 40. ANS: d REF: 74 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 41. ANS: a REF: 74 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 42. ANS: d REF: 75 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.1 43. ANS: a REF: 75 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.1 44. ANS: b REF: 74-75 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 45. ANS: b REF: 74-75 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 46. ANS: c REF: 74 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 47. ANS: a REF: 75 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 48. ANS: d REF: 74-75 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 49. ANS: a REF: 75 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.1 50. ANS: d REF: 75 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.1 51. ANS: a REF: 74-75 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 52. ANS: b REF: 75 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 53. ANS: c REF: 75 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.1 54. ANS: a REF: 75 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 55. ANS: d REF: 75 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.1 56. ANS: b REF: 75 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 57. ANS: a REF: 75 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 58. ANS: c REF: 76 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 59. ANS: a REF: 75 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 60. ANS: c REF: 75-76 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 61. ANS: c REF: 76 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 62. ANS: c REF: 75 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 63. ANS: b REF: 75 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.1 64. ANS: b REF: 75 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 65. ANS: b REF: 75 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 66. ANS: a REF: 75 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 67. ANS: b REF: 78 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.2 68. ANS: a REF: 77-78 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.2 69. ANS: c REF: 78 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.2 70. ANS: c REF: 78 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.2 71. ANS: c REF: 78 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.2 72. ANS: b REF: 77 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.2 73. ANS: c REF: 78 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.2 74. ANS: b REF: 79 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.2 75. ANS: a REF: 79 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.2 76. ANS: a REF: 79 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.2 77. ANS: d REF: 81 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.3 78. ANS: b REF: 81 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.3 79. ANS: a REF: 81 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.3 80. ANS: d REF: 81 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.3 81. ANS: a REF: 81 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.3 82. ANS: a REF: 82 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.3 83. ANS: c REF: 82 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.3 84. ANS: a REF: 82 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.3 85. ANS: b REF: 80|82 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.3 86. ANS: c REF: 78|82 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.3 87. ANS: c REF: 82 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.3 88. ANS: c REF: 82 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 89. ANS: b REF: 82 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.3 90. ANS: a REF: 83 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 91. ANS: a REF: 83 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 92. ANS: a REF: 83 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 93. ANS: b REF: 83 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.4 94. ANS: b REF: 82 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 95. ANS: b REF: 82 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.4 96. ANS: d REF: 83 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 97. ANS: a REF: 83 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 98. ANS: c REF: 83 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 99. ANS: b REF: 83 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 100. ANS: a REF: 83 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 101. ANS: b REF: 83 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.4 102. ANS: b REF: 84 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 103. ANS: c REF: 84 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 104. ANS: a REF: 84 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.4 105. ANS: d REF: 84 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 106. ANS: c REF: 84 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 107. ANS: d REF: 84 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.4 108. ANS: b REF: 84 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.4 109. ANS: d REF: 84 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 110. ANS: a REF: 84 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.4 111. ANS: d REF: 84 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 112. ANS: b REF: 84 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 113. ANS: b REF: 84 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 114. ANS: a REF: 84 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.4 115. ANS: a REF: 84-85 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.4 116. ANS: d REF: 86 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 117. ANS: a REF: 86 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 118. ANS: c REF: 88 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.5 119. ANS: a REF: 88 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.5 120. ANS: b REF: 88 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 121. ANS: a REF: 88 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 122. ANS: a REF: 88-89|90 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 123. ANS: a REF: 90 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.5 124. ANS: a REF: 90 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 125. ANS: d REF: 90 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 126. ANS: b REF: 90 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 127. ANS: a REF: 90 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 128. ANS: c REF: 91 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.5 129. ANS: c REF: 91 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.5 130. ANS: d REF: 91 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 131. ANS: a REF: 91 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.5 132. ANS: b REF: 91 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 133. ANS: b REF: 91 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.5 134. ANS: c REF: 91 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.5 135. ANS: c REF: 91 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.5 136. ANS: c REF: 91 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 137. ANS: c REF: 91 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.5 138. ANS: a REF: 91 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 139. ANS: a REF: 92 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 140. ANS: d REF: 92 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.5 141. ANS: d REF: 92 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.5 142. ANS: a REF: 91-92 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 143. ANS: c REF: 92 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.5 144. ANS: d REF: 92 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 145. ANS: c REF: 92 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 146. ANS: d REF: 93 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 147. ANS: d REF: 93 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 148. ANS: c REF: 93 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.5 149. ANS: c REF: 92 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 150. ANS: b REF: 93 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 151. ANS: b REF: 92 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.5 152. ANS: b REF: 93 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 153. ANS: b REF: 93 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 3.5 154. ANS: d REF: 93 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 155. ANS: a REF: 93 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 Matching 1. ANS: K REF: 70 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 2. ANS: I REF: 71 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 3. ANS: D REF: 70|72 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 4. ANS: P REF: 72 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 5. ANS: M REF: 74 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 6. ANS: E REF: 74 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 7. ANS: S REF: 74 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 8. ANS: L REF: 75 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 9. ANS: A REF: 75 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 10. ANS: B REF: 78 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.2 11. ANS: C REF: 78 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.2 12. ANS: R REF: 77 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.2 13. ANS: J REF: 77 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.2 14. ANS: H REF: 81 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.3 15. ANS: O REF: 81 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.3 16. ANS: N REF: 81 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.3 17. ANS: T REF: 82 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.3 18. ANS: G REF: 84 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 19. ANS: F REF: 83 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 20. ANS: Q REF: 84 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 Essay 1. REF: 71-72 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 2. REF: 71-73 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 3. REF: 71-76 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 4. REF: 73 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 5. REF: 75-76 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 6. REF: 74-75 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1 7. REF: 74|82 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.1|3.4 8. REF: 77-79 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.2 9. REF: 79 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.2 10. REF: 80-82 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.3 11. REF: 82-83 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 12. REF: 82-83 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 13. REF: 82-83 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 14. REF: 83-84 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 15. REF: 84 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 16. REF: 83-85 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 17. REF: 84 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 18. REF: 83-84 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 19. REF: 84 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 20. REF: 86 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.4 21. REF: 88-89 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 22. REF: 89-90 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 23. REF: 89-90 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 24. REF: 90-93 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 25. REF: 90 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 26. REF: 91 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 27. REF: 91 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 28. REF: 91 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 29. REF: 92 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5 30. REF: 92-93 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 3.5