Chapter 2 - Understanding Nutrition 13th Edition by Whitney

Chapter 2 – Planning a Healthy Diet Multiple Choice 1. A person’s customary intake of foods and beverages over time defines her or his a. body weight. b. eating pattern. c. genetic predisposition. d. risk for inherited diseases. 2. The diet-planning principle that provides all the nutrients, fiber, and energy in amounts sufficient to maintain health is called a. variety. b. adequacy. c. moderation. d. kcalorie control. 3. What are the principles of diet planning? a. Abundance, B vitamins, kcalories, diet control, minerals, and variety b. Abundance, balance, conservative, diversity, moderation, and vitamins c. Adequacy, bone development, correction, vitamin density, master, and variety d. Adequacy, balance, kcalorie control, nutrient density, moderation, and variety 4. Which of the following is the most calcium-dense food? a. Whole milk b. Nonfat milk c. Low-fat milk d. Cheddar cheese 5. Nutrient dense refers to foods that a. carry the USDA nutrition labeling. b. are higher in weight relative to volume. c. provide more nutrients relative to kcalories. d. contain a mixture of carbohydrate, fat, and protein. 6. The concept of nutrient density is most helpful in achieving what principle of diet planning? a. Variety b. Balance c. Moderation d. kCalorie control 7. Which of the following is an expression of the nutrient density of a food? a. 0.01 mg iron per kcalorie b. 110 kcalories per cup c. 0.5 mg iron per serving d. 110 kcalories per serving 8. An empty-kcalorie food is one that contains a. no kcalories. b. an abundance of vitamins but little or no minerals. c. an abundance of minerals but little or no vitamins. d. energy and little or no protein, vitamins, or minerals. 9. A food that provides 100 mg of magnesium and 25 kcal in a serving has a magnesium density (mg per kcal) of a. 0.4 b. 4 c. 250 d. 2500 10. Ranking foods according to their overall nutrient composition is known as a. biological value. b. nutrient profiling. c. the risk reduction score. d. the healthy eating index. 11. Providing enough, but not an excess, of a food is a diet-planning principle known as a. safety. b. variety. c. moderation. d. undernutrition. 12. Applying the principle of variety in food planning ensures the benefits of a. moderation. b. vegetarianism. c. nutrient density. d. dilution of harmful substances. 13. Which of the following practices is NOT consistent with achieving a healthy diet? a. Intake of eggs b. Intake of nuts c. Emphasis on solid fats d. Emphasis on low-fat milk products 14. Which of the following is among the recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans? a. Increase physical activity b. Limit protein foods intake c. Practice good foot hygiene d. Reduce seafood consumption 15. Which of the following is NOT a feature of daily sodium intake guidelines? a. The intake for most people should be <2300 mg b. The intake for African-Americans should be ?1500 mg c. The intake should be limited to 10% of total mineral intake d. The intake for most people ?51 yrs of age should be ?1500 mg 16. The Dietary Guidelines for Americans 2010 are applicable to all population groups except a. pregnant teenagers. b. people who are super-obese. c. children under 2 years of age. d. seniors older than 80 years of age. 17. Which of the following is NOT among the features of a food group plan? a. Defines portion sizes b. Considered a tool for diet planning c. Sorts foods of similar water content d. Specifies the amounts of food from each group 18. An important feature of the food group subgroupings is that a. all vegetables do not provide an array of nutrients. b. consuming legumes supplies protein but not fiber or vitamins. c. it is not necessary to consume every subgroup every day. d. it is acceptable to consume broccoli every day for a week to meet the vegetables group intake. 19. Consider the following menu from the point of view of the USDA Food Patterns. Breakfast 2 eggs 1 tsp margarine 2 slices enriched white bread 1 c whole milk coffee Lunch 2 oz tuna fish lettuce 1 tbsp mayonnaise 2 slices enriched white bread 1 apple Supper 3 oz hamburger meat 1 oz cheese ½ c cooked rice ½ c carrots coffee Which of the following describes the nutritional value of the fruits and vegetables in this menu? a. A source of vitamin A is missing b. A source of vitamin C is marginal c. The daily amounts recommended for a 2000-kcalorie diet are met d. The daily amounts recommended for a 2000-kcalorie diet are exceeded 20. Jamie is a vegetarian who is trying to plan a healthy diet according to the USDA Food Patterns. Which of the following protein foods would be the best nutrient choices for one day? a. 2 pieces bacon, 1/2 can tuna, 2 pieces bread b. 1/2 cup pinto beans, 1/2 cup tofu, 2 tbsp peanut butter c. 1/2 cup black beans, 2 tbsp peanut butter, 1 c spinach d. 1 skinless chicken breast, 2 egg whites, meal replacement bar 21. What two major nutrients are supplied by the fruit and vegetable groups? a. Vitamins D and E b. Vitamins A and C c. Protein and calcium d. B vitamins and iron 22. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the USDA Food Patterns? a. They place most foods into one of five groups b. The nutrients of greatest concern include iron, chromium, and vitamin B12 c. They can be used with great flexibility once their intent is understood d. They specify that a certain quantity of food be consumed from each group, based upon energy intake 23. Which of the following is NOT a legume? a. Peas b. Beans c. Peanuts d. Potatoes 24. How much fruit juice (100%) is equivalent to 1 cup of fresh fruit? a. 0.25 cup b. 0.5 cup c. 1 cup d. 2 cups 25. According to the USDA Food Patterns, which of the following protein foods should be most limited? a. Shrimp b. Baked beans c. Peanut butter d. Skinless chicken 26. Which of the following is a healthy choice for protein in the USDA Food Patterns? a. Nuts b. Bacon c. Baked potatoes d. Sweet potatoes 27. In which of the following food groups are legumes found? a. Dairy b. Fruits c. Grains d. Protein 28. Which of the following foods could help meet the iron needs of vegetarians who consume dairy? a. Coconut b. Legumes c. Skim milk d. Potato salad 29. How many subgroups comprise the vegetable food group? a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7 30. Approximately how many kcalories more per day are needed by an average college-age student who is active compared with her inactive counterpart? a. 400-500 b. 600-800 c. 1000-1200 d. 1500-2000 31. Which of the following is NOT among the general features of legumes? a. They are low in iron b. They are rich in fiber c. They include peanuts d. They are rich in protein 32. According to the principles of the USDA Food Patterns, the foundation of a healthful diet should consist of a. dairy. b. fruits. c. protein foods. d. nutrient-dense foods. 33. Which of the following foods provides discretionary kcalories for the person on a weight-reduction diet? a. Watermelon b. Canned pears in syrup c. Milk with all fat removed c. Chicken with the skin removed 34. Which of the following foods’ kcalories would be considered as part of one’s discretionary kcalorie allowance? a. Jam b. Watermelon c. Raw carrots d. Brussels sprouts 35. Which of the following foods supplies only discretionary kcalories? a. Bagel b. Raisins c. Grape jelly d. Peanut butter 36. Approximately how many more kcalories does the average active adult need versus the average sedentary adult? a. 400-600 b. 750-1,000 c. about 1,000 d. at least 2,000 37. What is the assessment tool designed to measure how well a diet meets the recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines? a. Healthy Eating Index b. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program c. Dietitian’s Comparative Effectiveness Plan d. U.S. Public Health Nutrient Assessment Barometer 38. In the MyPlate icon, which nutrient is shown as a separate food group? a. Fat b. Protein c. Carbohydrate d. Micronutrients 39. Which of the following is a major criticism of the use of the MyPlate educational tool? a. It allows for oversized portions b. The Dairy group excludes ice cream c. The five groups are not clearly identified d. It treats all foods within a single group the same 40. To fully utilize the concepts of MyPlate requires the consumer to a. be Internet active. b. use a food weighing scale. c. visualize color differences. d. prepare most meals at home. 41. MyPlate was created to a. illustrate the five food groups. b. reinforce the MyPyramid concept. c. reinforce the Healthy Eating Index. d. encourage more meal eating at home. 42. Which of the following food groups is actually consumed in amounts greater than recommended by the USDA? a. Dairy b. Fruits c. Vegetables d. Protein foods 43. Food exchange systems were originally developed for people with a. diabetes. b. terminal diseases. c. cardiovascular disease. d. life-threatening obesity. 44. Which of the following is a feature of the exchange list system? a. Foods are grouped according to their source b. Adequate intakes of minerals and vitamins are virtually guaranteed c. A fat portion provides about twice the energy as a carbohydrate portion d. All foods are grouped according to their content of carbohydrate, protein, and fats 45. In food exchange lists, to what group are olives assigned? a. Fat b. Meat c. Carbohydrate d. Meat substitute 46. Whole-grain flour contains all parts of the grain with the exception of the a. bran. b. husk. c. germ. d. endosperm. 47. Refined grain products contain only the a. bran. b. husk. c. germ. d. endosperm. 48. The addition of calcium to some orange juice products by food manufacturers is most properly termed nutrient a. enrichment. b. restoration. c. fortification. d. mineralization. 49. What nutrient makes up most of the endosperm section of grains such as wheat and rice? a. Fat b. Fiber c. Starch d. Protein 50. The part of the grain that remains after being refined is the a. bran. b. germ. c. husk. d. endosperm. 51. Which of the following breads has the highest fiber content? a. White b. Refined c. Enriched d. Whole-grain 52. Which of the following is a characteristic of enriched grain products? a. They have all of the added nutrients listed on the label b. They have the fiber restored from the refining procedure c. They have virtually all the nutrients restored from refining procedure d. They have only 4 vitamins and 4 minerals added by the food manufacturer 53. All of the following are features of the process of nutrient enrichment of flours EXCEPT a. it includes products such as pastas. b. fiber levels are similar to those in the whole grains. c. it is required of all refined grain products that cross state lines. d. thiamin and riboflavin are added in amounts exceeding their levels in the whole grain. 54. Approximately what minimum percentage of all grains consumed by a person should be whole grains? a. 20 b. 35 c. 50 d. 100 55. What mineral is added to refined flours in the enrichment process? a. Iron b. Iodine c. Calcium d. Magnesium 56. Which of the following product labels always denotes a whole-grain product? a. Multi-grain b. 100% wheat c. Whole-wheat d. Stone-ground 57. The enrichment of grain products in the United States was initiated in the a. 1840s. b. 1890s. c. 1940s. d. 1990s. 58. Approximately how many years have grain products been subject to nutrient enrichment legislation? a. 70 b. 100 c. 175 d. 225 59. Which of the following is an enrichment nutrient for grains? a. Zinc b. Folate c. Protein d. Calcium 60. The most highly fortified foods on the market are a. frozen dinners. b. imitation foods. c. enriched breads. d. breakfast cereals. 61. Which of the following nutrients would be supplied in much greater amounts from whole-grain bread versus enriched bread? a. Zinc b. Folate c. Riboflavin d. Thiamin 62. Which of the following nutrients is NOT supplied in about the same amount by a slice of enriched bread compared with a slice of whole-grain bread? a. Iron b. Niacin c. Thiamin d. Magnesium 63. Cooking an 8-ounce raw steak will reduce the weight (ounces) to approximately a. 3 1/2. b. 5. c. 6. d. 7. 64. Textured vegetable protein is usually made from a. soybeans. b. corn stalks. c. a mixture of legumes. d. cruciferous vegetables. 65. Which of the following terms is used to describe a cut of meat having a low fat content? a. End b. Round c. Prime d. Choice 66. A meat described as “prime cut” means that it a. has an extended shelf life. b. usually carries a high price. c. is served only in restaurants. d. is higher in fat than other cuts of meat. 67. Which of the following is NOT the same as fat-free milk? a. Skim milk b. No-fat milk c. 1% milk d. Non-fat milk 68. What term describes a food that resembles and substitutes for another food but is nutritionally inferior to it? a. Faux food b. Pseudo food c. Imitation food d. Food substitute 69. According to food labeling laws, which of the following is NOT an acceptable synonym for nonfat milk? a. Skim milk b. No-fat milk c. Zero-fat milk d. Reduced-fat milk 70. Which of the following is a feature of U.S. laws governing information on food labels? a. The term “fresh” can be used only for raw and moderately processed food b. Nutrition labeling must appear on virtually all processed as well as fresh foods c. Restaurant foods must provide nutrient content information on the menu d. Nutrition labeling is not required on foods produced by small businesses or products produced and sold in the same establishment 71. A food scientist is developing a new and improved cereal bar. She consults with you to ask in what order the ingredients should be listed on the food label. The ingredients are: Sugar: 30 g, Puffed wheat: 28 g, Dry milk powder: 5 g, Red food coloring: 35 mg, Salt: 2 g. What is the appropriate order in which to list these ingredients on the food label? a. Sugar, puffed wheat, dry milk powder, salt, red food coloring b. Red food coloring, salt, dry milk powder, puffed wheat, sugar c. Dry milk powder, puffed wheat, red food coloring, salt, sugar d. Puffed wheat, sugar, dry milk powder, salt, red food coloring 72. According to nutrition labeling laws, what two minerals must be listed on the package label as a percent Daily Value? a. Calcium and iron b. Zinc and phosphorus c. Fluoride and chloride d. Chromium and magnesium 73. A food label ingredient list reads in the following order: Wheat flour, vegetable shortening, sugar, salt, and cornstarch. What item would be found in the smallest amount in the food? a. Salt b. Sugar c. Cornstarch d. Wheat flour 74. By law, a serving size on beverage food labels is a. 4-6 fluid ounces. b. 8 fluid ounces. c. 10-12 fluid ounces. d. 16 fluid ounces. 75. Approximately how many milliliters constitute a fluid ounce? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 76. Approximately how many grams are in an ounce? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 77. Which of the following is NOT a feature of serving size information on food labels? a. Serving sizes for solid foods are expressed in both ounces and grams b. Small bags of individually wrapped food items must contain only one serving c. Serving sizes on food labels are not necessarily the same as those of MyPlate d. For a given product, the serving size is the same, no matter how large the package 78. Which of the following is a characteristic of food serving sizes? a. Serving sizes for most foods have not yet been established by the FDA b. The serving size for ice cream is 2 cups and the serving size for all beverages is 12 fluid ounces c. Serving sizes on food labels are not always the same as those of the USDA Food Patterns d. Serving sizes must be listed in common household measures, such as cups, or metric measures, such as milliliters, but not both 79. According to nutrition labeling laws, the amounts of what two vitamins must be listed on the package label as a percent Daily Value? a. Vitamins D and E b. Vitamins A and C c. Thiamin and riboflavin d. Vitamin B6 and niacin 80. Food labels express the nutrient content in relation to a set of standard values known as the a. Daily Values. b. FDA Standards. c. Dietary Reference Intakes. d. Recommended Dietary Intakes. 81. Population groups such as sedentary older men, sedentary younger women, and active older women have a daily energy need (kcalories) of approximately a. 1200. b. 1500. c. 2000. d. 2700. 82. On a food label, the “% Daily Value” table compares key nutrients per serving for a person consuming how many kcalories daily? a. 1500 b. 2000 c. 2500 d. 3000 83. Which of the following foods is nutrient dense and also qualifies as a “good source” of calcium? a. Cheese with 50 mg of calcium b. Yogurt with 150 mg of calcium c. Ice cream with 90 mg calcium d. Sherbet with 30 mg of calcium 84. Lucianna’s energy requirement is 1600 kcal/day. What is her personal Daily Value for saturated fat? a. 17 g b. 20 g c. 53 g d. 65 g 85. According to nutrition labeling laws, which of the following minerals does NOT need to be listed on a food label? a. Iron b. Sodium c. Calcium d. Potassium 86. Which of the following is a feature of the Nutrition Facts panel on a food label? a. Trans fat content is optional b. Saturated fat must be listed c. Naturally present sugars are excluded d. Soluble and insoluble fiber must be listed separately 87. Which of the following is a feature of the Daily Values found on food labels? a. They are updated every two years as mandated by the USDA b. They are expressed on a “per 1000-kcalorie intake” basis c. They assist people in determining whether a food contains a little or a lot of a nutrient d. They define a food as an excellent source of a nutrient if it contributes at least 50% of the dietary recommended intake 88. A food label that advertises the product as a “rich source of fiber” is an example of a a. nutrient claim. b. health claim. c. weight reduction claim. d. structure-function claim. 89. According to the FDA, a food label that reads "improves memory" is an example of a a. health claim. b. Daily Value claim. c. qualified health claim. d. structure-function claim. 90. Greg is trying to decide which brand of cereal to buy, but he is a somewhat confused by the health claims. Which of the following represents the highest level of significant scientific agreement? a. “Promotes a healthy heart” b. “This cereal supports heart health” c. “This product contains whole grains, which have been proven to reduce the risk of heart disease and certain cancers” d. “Very limited and preliminary scientific research suggests this product can reduce risk for cancers; FDA concludes that there is little scientific evidence supporting this claim” 91. Which of the following is a characteristic of structure-function claims on food labels? a. They are allowed only for unprocessed food b. They can be made without any FDA approval c. They must conform to guidelines of the “A” list of health claims d. They must state the name of the disease or symptom for which a benefit is claimed 92. Which of the following ingredients on a food label is most likely a source of trans fats? a. Butter b. Coconut oil c. High-fructose corn syrup d. Partially hydrogenated oils 93. Which of the following are allowed in the diet of a lactovegetarian? a. Plant foods only b. Eggs and plant foods only c. Meat, eggs, and plant foods only d. Milk products and plant foods only 94. Tempeh is made from a. soybeans. b. any legume. c. fermented leafy vegetables. d. fermented yellow vegetables. 95. Which of the following would NOT be permitted on a macrobiotic diet? a. Small amounts of dairy b. Small amounts of seeds c. Abundant amounts of legumes d. Abundant amounts of whole grains 96. Which of the following ingredients found on a food label is a source of protein? a. BHT b. Tofu c. Corn starch d. Diglycerides 97. Which of the following is a feature of people regularly eating meals based on tofu? a. They show less heart disease but more colon cancer than omnivores b. They show evidence of marginal protein intake compared with omnivores c. They have lower blood pressure levels than those eating meat d. They have lower sodium intakes but blood pressure is similar to those eating red meat 98. All of the following are documented benefits for people following a vegetarian diet EXCEPT a. lower body weights. b. lower rates of anemia. c. lower blood cholesterol levels. d. lower rates of certain types of cancer. 99. In vegetarians, the RDA is higher for a. iron. b. folate. c. calcium. d. vitamin A. 100. Which of the following is a feature of iron nutrition in vegetarians? a. Vegetarians absorb iron more efficiently b. Iron utilization is inhibited by the high zinc content in grains c. The absorption of iron is low due to the high vitamin C intake d. More iron deficiency is found in vegetarians than in people eating a mixed diet 101.Meat replacements consumed by vegetarians are usually made of a. soy protein. b. fish protein. c. bean plus rice proteins. d. bean plus cheese proteins. 102. For the most part, all of the following are advantages of vegetarian diets EXCEPT a. fat intake is lower. b. fiber intake is higher. c. vitamin B12 intake is higher. d. intakes of vitamins A and C are higher. 103. Which of the following is a feature of vitamin B12 nutrition in vegetarians? a. Vitamin B12 in fortified cereals has low bioavailability b. Vegan mothers need only infrequent intake of vitamin B12-fortified cereals c. The vitamin B12 in fermented soy products may be present in an inactive form d. Infants born to vegan mothers are resistant to the development of vitamin B12 deficiency 104. Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of vegetarians? a. They are no more iron deficient than are omnivores b. Their zinc absorption is efficient due to high soy intake c. They are at risk for iodine toxicity when consuming high amounts of seaweeds d. Their need for calcium can be met by consuming fortified soy milk, breakfast cereals, and juices 105. Which of the following is a characteristic of a macrobiotic diet? a. It excludes all hot and salty foods b. It permits inclusion of many on-organic foods c. It represents a way of life rather than just a way of eating d. It emphasizes abundant amounts of fish, fruits, nuts, and seeds Matching 1. The principle of consuming a number of foods in proportion to each other 2. The principle of recognizing that a food has more iron than another food when expressed per kcalorie 3. Origin of the MyPlate graphic 4. Number of major food groups 5. Legume belonging to the starch category of exchange lists 6. Part of grain richest in fiber 7. Part of grain containing most of the starch 8. Nutrient added in grain enrichment process 9. Example of a fortified food 10. Commonly used to make textured vegetable protein 11. Example of a functional food 12. Nutrient commonly added in cow’s milk fortification process 13. Maximum number of grams of fat recommended on a 2000-kcalorie diet based on the Daily Value 14. Serving size (equivalent to 1 oz) of rice in the USDA Food Patterns 15. Serving size of rice on a food label 16. Agency that regulates food labeling 17. Grams of fat supplied by a 1200-kcalorie diet that is 30% fat 18. Associated in a reliable health claim allowed on food labels 19. Associated in a health claim NOT allowed on food labels without a disclaimer 20. Nutrient commonly added in soy milk fortification process A. 5 B. 40 C. 65 D. 1/2 cup E. 1 cup F. FDA G. Bran H. Iron I. USDA J. Soybeans K. Green peas L. Balance M. Vitamin B12 N. Vitamin A O. Endosperm P. Nutrient density Q. Sodium and hypertension R. Tomatoes and prostate cancer S. Margarine containing plant sterols T. Orange juice containing added calcium Essay 1. List and discuss the significance of six diet-planning principles. 2. Why is it important to vary intake of foods within the same food group from day to day? 3. What is meant by the term “nutrient-dense food”? Give 3 examples each of foods with high nutrient density and low nutrient density. 4. Why do dietary guidelines include recommendations for physical activity? 5. List and discuss 7 key recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans. 6. List the five food groups and describe how foods are classified in the USDA Food Patterns. What are the advantages and disadvantages of the plan? 7. Provide examples and discuss the importance of the 5 subgroups of the vegetables food group. 8. Why are legumes classified as a meat alternative? 9. Why is it important to eat vegetables of various colors rather than restrict intake to just a few? 10. What are the meaning, significance, and utility of discretionary kcalories in the USDA Food Patterns? 11. Define the term “discretionary kcalories” and give 3 examples of foods that provide them. Under what circumstances is the intake of discretionary kcalories permitted? 12. Discuss ways in which dietary planning guides can be applied to ethnic diets. 13. Discuss the meaning, significance, and utility of MyPlate as an educational tool. 14. Diagram the MyPlate icon. Explain how a consumer is expected to use it. Discuss the shortcomings of MyPlate as a concept to improve eating patterns. 15. What is the Healthy Eating Index and how does it work? 16. According to studies, how well do consumers follow the guidelines of the USDA Food Patterns and MyPlate? 17. What are the criticisms of the MyPlate? 18. What is the origin of food exchange lists? How are they best utilized? 19. Calculate a set of personal Daily Values for someone with a 3000-kcalorie diet. 20. Discuss the meaning and significance of foods that are refined, enriched, fortified, or whole-grain. 21. Discuss the benefits and limitations of the U.S. grain enrichment legislation. 22. What is textured vegetable protein and how is it used in nutrition? 23. When preparing meat, fish, and poultry, what steps can be taken to reduce the contribution of fat kcalories? 24. Describe the major aspects of nutrition labeling regulations. List the information that must be displayed on food labels. 25. Why do food label serving sizes often confuse consumers? 26. Discuss the consumer benefits of information found in the Daily Values table on food labels. 27. Discuss the regulations for nutrient claims and health claims on food labels. 28. What is a structure-function claim? Give 4 examples. 29. List reasons that people become vegetarians. 30. List the advantages of a vegetarian diet. What nutrient requirements are more difficult to meet on this diet, and what precautions are needed to prevent insufficient intakes in the child, in the adult, and in the pregnant woman? 31. Discuss the use of soy products for meeting the nutritional needs of vegetarians. 32. How can vegetarians conform to the principles of the USDA Food Patterns and MyPlate? 33. Develop a modified MyPlate for a vegetarian and for a vegan (strict vegetarian). 34. Discuss the adequacy of iron, zinc, and calcium nutrition in vegetarians. 35. Discuss the adequacy of vitamin D and vitamin B12 nutrition in vegetarians. 36. Explain the concepts and dietary practices associated with the macrobiotic diet. Answer Key (ANS = correct answer, REF = page reference, DIF = difficulty, OBJ = learning objective) Multiple Choice 1. ANS: b REF: 35 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.1 2. ANS: b REF: 36 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.1 3. ANS: d REF: 36 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.1 4. ANS: b REF: 36 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.1 5. ANS: c REF: 36 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.1 6. ANS: d REF: 36 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.1 7. ANS: a REF: 37 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.1 8. ANS: d REF: 38 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.1 9. ANS: b REF: 37 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.1 10. ANS: b REF: 38 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.1 11. ANS: c REF: 38 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.1 12. ANS: d REF: 38 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.1 13. ANS: c REF: 38 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.1 14. ANS: a REF: 39 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.1 15. ANS: c REF: 39 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.1 16. ANS: c REF: 39 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.1 17. ANS: c REF: 40 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 18. ANS: c REF: 40-41 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 19. ANS: b REF: 40-44 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 20. ANS: c REF: 40-44 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 21. ANS: b REF: 40-41|42 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 22. ANS: b REF: 40-41|45 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 23. ANS: d REF: 41|51 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 24. ANS: c REF: 42 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 25. ANS: b REF: 43 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 26. ANS: a REF: 43 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 27. ANS: d REF: 43 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 28. ANS: b REF: 41 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 29. ANS: c REF: 40|42 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 30. ANS: a REF: 44 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 31. ANS: a REF: 41|51 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 32. ANS: d REF: 40-41 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 33. ANS: b REF: 44 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 34. ANS: a REF: 44 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 35. ANS: c REF: 44 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 36. ANS: a REF: 44 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 37. ANS: a REF: 45 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 38. ANS: b REF: 45 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 39. ANS: d REF: 46 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 40. ANS: a REF: 46 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 41. ANS: a REF: 45 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 42. ANS: d REF: 45|47 DIF: Knowledge -level OBJ: 2.2 43. ANS: a REF: 46-47 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 44. ANS: d REF: 47 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 45. ANS: a REF: 47 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 46. ANS: b REF: 49|50 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 47. ANS: d REF: 49|50 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 48. ANS: c REF: 49-50 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 49. ANS: c REF: 49|50 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 50. ANS: d REF: 50 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 51. ANS: d REF: 49|50 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 52. ANS: a REF: 49 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 53. ANS: b REF: 49 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 54. ANS: c REF: 42 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 55. ANS: a REF: 49 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 56. ANS: c REF: 49 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 57. ANS: c REF: 49 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 58. ANS: a REF: 49 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 59. ANS: b REF: 49 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 60. ANS: d REF: 50 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 61. ANS: a REF: 51 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 62. ANS: d REF: 51 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 63. ANS: c REF: 52 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 64. ANS: a REF: 52 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 65. ANS: b REF: 52 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 66. ANS: d REF: 52 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 67. ANS: c REF: 53 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 68. ANS: c REF: 53 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 69. ANS: d REF: 53 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 70. ANS: d REF: 53 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.3 71. ANS: a REF: 53-54 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.3 72. ANS: a REF: 55 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 73. ANS: c REF: 53-54 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.3 74. ANS: b REF: 54 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.3 75. ANS: c REF: 54 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 76. ANS: c REF: 54 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 77. ANS: b REF: 54 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 78. ANS: c REF: 54 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 79. ANS: b REF: 55 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 80. ANS: a REF: 55 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 81. ANS: c REF: 44|55 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2|2.3 82. ANS: b REF: 55 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 83. ANS: b REF: 55-56 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.3 84. ANS: a REF: 55|56 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.3 85. ANS: d REF: 55 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 86. ANS: b REF: 54-55 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 87. ANS: c REF: 55-56 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 88. ANS: a REF: 56 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.3 89. ANS: d REF: 57-58 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 90. ANS: c REF: 57-58 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.3 91. ANS: b REF: 57-58 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 92. ANS: d REF: 59 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 93. ANS: d REF: 62 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.4 94. ANS: a REF: 62 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.4 95. ANS: a REF: 62 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.4 96. ANS: b REF: 64 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.4 97. ANS: c REF: 63 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.4 98. ANS: b REF: 62-63|64 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.4 99. ANS: a REF: 64 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.4 100. ANS: a REF: 64 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.4 101. ANS: a REF: 64 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.4 102. ANS: c REF: 64-65 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.4 103. ANS: c REF: 65 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.4 104. ANS: b REF: 64-65 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.4 105. ANS: c REF: 66 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.4 Matching 1. ANS: L REF: 36 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.1 2. ANS: P REF: 36 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.1 3. ANS: I REF: 45 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 4. ANS: A REF: 40 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 5. ANS: K REF: 47 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 6. ANS: G REF: 49|50 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 7. ANS: O REF: 49|50 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 8. ANS: H REF: 49 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 9. ANS: T REF: 49|50 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 10. ANS: J REF: 52 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 11. ANS: S REF: 53 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 12. ANS: N REF: 53 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 13. ANS: C REF: 55 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 14. ANS: D REF: 42 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 15. ANS: E REF: 54 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 16. ANS: F REF: 54|56 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 17. ANS: B REF: 56 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.3 18. ANS: Q REF: 57 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 19. ANS: R REF: 57 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 20. ANS: M REF: 65 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.4 Essay 1. REF: 36-38 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.1 2. REF: 38 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.1 3. REF: 36|41 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.1|2.2 4. REF: 40 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.1 5. REF: 38-40 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.1 6. REF: 40-43|45 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 7. REF: 42|51 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 8. REF: 41 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 9. REF: 40-41|51 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 10. REF: 44 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 11. REF: 44 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 12. REF: 45|46 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.2 13. REF: 45|46 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 14. REF: 45|46 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 15. REF: 45-46 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 16. REF: 45-46|47 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 17. REF: 46 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 18. REF: 46-47 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 19. REF: 55-56 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.3 20. REF: 49-51 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 21. REF: 49-50 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 22. REF: 52 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 23. REF: 52 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.2 24. REF: 53-55 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 25. REF: 54 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 26. REF: 55-56 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 27. REF: 56-58 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.3 28. REF: 57-58 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.3 29. REF: 62 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.4 30. REF: 62-66 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.4 31. REF: 63-66 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.4 32. REF: 63-64 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.4 33. REF: 63-66 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 2.4 34. REF: 64-65 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.4 35. REF: 65-66 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.4 36. REF: 66 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 2.4