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BIOL 308: Fundamentals of Ecology and Evolution Exam 1
Fall 2013
Follow directions. In multiple choice questions choose the one best answer. Multiple choice questions are worth 2 points. There are 48 questions worth 104 points. Your grade will be based on 100, thus you can miss 4 points and still have a perfect score of 100%. There is also a final question worth 4 additional points if you can solve it.
1. Kohlrabi, broccoli and kale are examples of
A) Ecotypes.
B) Species.
C) Convergent evolution.
D) Natural selection.
E) Human or artificial selection.
2. Plants in the cactus family in America and the Euphorb family in Africa illustrate
A) Convergent evolution. B) Speciation.
C) Divergent evolution. D) Acclimation.
3. Evolution works at the level of _______, while natural selection works at the level of _______.
A) A population; the community B) A community; the individual
C) The individual; the community D) a population; the individual
4. Three of the following are Darwin’s Postulates. Which of the following is incorrect?
A) Variation exists only within populations for any given trait (Variation arises through mutations).
B) The genetic traits of organisms are inherited from their parents.
C) Normally, many more individuals are produced than can survive.
D) The process of natural selection preserves the most fit.
5. The Channel Island Fox (Urocyon littoralis) and the gray fox (Urocyon cinereoargenteus)are examples of:
A) Allopatric Speciation; B) Sympatric Speciation;
C) Convergent Evolution; D) Ecotypes.
6. What, if anything, is a dog?
A) A distinct species in the Canidae;
B) A sub-species of the fox;
C) A sub-species of the wolf;
D) A distinct species in the cat family;
E) An animal closely related to my uncle.
7. If a light colored mouse were to be placed on dark loamy soil takes on a dark brown coat and, when returned to the beach became light colored again, this would be an example of:
A) Adaptation B) Acclimation C) Subspecies D) Speciation
Select from the following list to answer questions 8 - 10.
A) Andreas Vesalius
B) Nicholas Steno
C) Georges-Louis Leclerc, Comte de Buffon
D) Thomas Malthus
E) Georges Cuvier
B 8. Father of modern Paleontology
A 9. Father of modern comparative anatomy
C 10. Argued that life, like the Earth, had a history
Select from the following list to answer questions 11 - 12
A) Jean Baptiste Lamarck
B) Charles Darwin
C) Charles Lyell
D) Alfred Russel Wallace
E) Thomas Malthus
C 11. Founded the uniformitarianism version of geology
D 12. Founded the science of biogeography while simultaneously devising a theory of evolution almost identical to that of Darwin
13. Genetic drift may cause which of the following to happen in populations?
A) Loss of genetic diversity. C) Population divergence.
B) Loss of natural selection. D) All of these happen.
14. Which of the following processes causes reduced health, reproduction, and survival in populations?
A) Genetic Drift B) Mutation
C) Sexual Selection D) Inbreeding Depression
15. Which of the following is the phenomenon whereby the effects of one gene are modified by one or several other genes, which are sometimes called modifier genes?
A) evolution B) polyploidy
C) mutation D) epistasis
16. Richard Lenski grew bacteria over 500,000 generations in 12 bacterial family lines. During this time he found three key pieces of information. Which of the following is NOT one of Lenski’s discoveries?
A) A few key genes had mutated in almost all 12 lines.
B) When challenged with maltose, none of the 12 lines could feed on maltose and died out.
C) Each line had a number of mutations different from all other the lines.
D) When challenged maltose, some of the 12 lines were able to feed on maltose.
17. The work of the Grants on Daphne major in the Galapagos demonstrated:
A) directional natural selection in finches.
B) directional natural selection in lizards.
C) sexual selection in finches.
D) sexual selection in lizards.
18. In which of the following will you find the average characteristics of a population are preserved as selection favors the average individuals?
A) Disruptive Selection B) Stabilizing Selection
C) Directional Selection D) None of these is correct.
19. In which of the following will you find individuals are favored which vary in one direction from the population mean?
A) Disruptive Selection B) Stabilizing Selection
C) Directional Selection D) None of these is correct.
20. If you were a female dunnock, what mating combination would you choose to optimize the fitness of your offspring? What is the mating combination called?
A. One male with one female; Monogamy.
B. One male with two or more females; Polygyny.
C. One female with two or more males; Polyandry.
D. Multiple males and females; Polygynandry.
21. Some males display in a special area in order to have females choose them. This is called a:
A) lek. B) sexual selection.
C) ring. D) ley.
22. Which of the following is NOT a good description of the process of gene flow?
A) It is part of the process of seasonal migration of individuals.
B) It is a population process.
C) It can reduce the differences in allele frequencies between populations.
D) It can also increase genetic diversity in a population.
23. The ultimate source of new alleles, and ultimately new genes, is:
A) evolution. B) natural selection.
C) sexual selection. D) mutation.
24. Which of the following is an evolutionary event in which a significant percentage of a population or species is killed or otherwise prevented from reproducing?
A) genetic mutation B) evolution
C) population bottleneck D) directional selection
25. A slightly different sort of genetic event can occur if a small group becomes reproductively separated from the main population. This is called a
A) founder effect. B) sympatric speciation.
C) lek. D) a serious problem.
26. The simplest type of mutation is called a(n)
A) silent mutation. B) synonymous mutation.
C) point mutation. D) nonsynonymous mutation.
27. An example of a knock-out or non-sense mutation is:
A) sickle cell anemia. B) thalassemia.
C) hemophilia. D) frame-shift mutation.
28. The insertion or deletion (indels) of a nucleotide to a DNA sequence is called a:
A) sickle cell anemia. B) thalassemia.
C) hemophilia. D) frame-shift mutation.
29. Mutation rates are higher for
A) nuclear DNA. B) integers.
C) exons. D) mitochondrial DNA.
30. Gene families, which are groups of closely related genes, are caused by:
A) splitting genomes. B) duplicating sections of the genome
C) mutation. D) evolution.
Answer questions 31 -34 using the following choices:
A) biased gene conversion
B) homology
C) concerted evolution
D) unequal crossing over
E) gene tree
C 31. Multiple copies of a gene tend to be identical and evolved together.
D 32. One chromosome has extra copies of a repeat, the other has fewer.
A 33. DNA strands break and are imperfectly repaired by the DNA repair system.
B 34. Traits of an organism that come from sharing a common ancestor.
Using the image below answer questions 35 - 37.
35. Which of the genes are paralogs?
A) B? and C? B) C? and B? C) C?1 and C?2
36. Which of the genes are orthologs?
A) B? and C? B) B? and C?1 C) A and B?
37. Which of the genes are homologs?
A) A and all the other genes
B) A and none of the other genes
C) All of the genes except A
38. A group of actually or potentially interbreeding individuals that are reproductively isolated from all other kinds of organisms is a(n)
A) population. B) species.
C) group. D) clade.
39. The common ancestor of all of the species displayed in a phylogenetic tree lies at the _________________ of the tree.
A) Root or base B) Tip C) Node D) Taxon E) All of the above
40. What was the main reason that maggot flies became reproductively isolated from one another?
A) Genetic Drift.
B) Chromosomal Inversions.
C) Change in timing of reproduction and preference for host plants.
D) Point mutations.
41. Carolus Linnaeus:
A) Differentiated species based on the biological species concept.
B) Originated the binomial system of nomenclature.
C) Classified species based on morphology
D) Both A and B
E) Both B and C
42. Which of the following is the most likely sequence of events in geographic speciation?
A) Geographic barrier, reproductive isolation, genetic divergence
B) Reproductive isolation, geographic barrier, genetic divergence
C) Genetic divergence, geographic barrier, reproductive isolation
D) Genetic divergence, reproductive isolation, geographic barrier
E) Reproductive isolation, genetic divergence, geographic barrier
43. The most common means of sympatric speciation occurs via:
A) Geographic barrier B) The hawthorne process
C) Disruptive selection D) Polyploidy
44. Before transferring sperm to the female during mating, the males of some species of beetles use their copulatory organs to remove the sperm of other males. In cases in which a female mated first with a male of a different species, the male of her own species is particularly adept at removing the other male's sperm. This is an example of _______ isolation.
A) Chemical B) Postzygotic C) Mechanical
D) Geographical E) Female choice
45. Which of the following changes is a transition?
A) A to G B) A to T C) A to C D) G to T E) G to C
Short Answer.
(3) 46. There are six assumptions to the Hardy-Weinberg Model. List three of them.
No Mutations
No Natural Selection
Very Large Population
Random Mating (No Sexual Selection)
All Members of Population Have the Same Fertility and Mortality Rates
No Immigration or Emigration
(3) 47. There are six mechanisms of evolution. List three of them.
Natural selection = differential reproductive and survival of genotypes
Sexual Selection (included here by choice; others lump this under gene flow)
Genetic drift = random changes in allele frequencies
Mutation = novel mutations in the population
Gene flow = the net movement of alleles into or out of a population
Migration
Non-random mating
(8) 48. Given the characteristics of the following population, answer the questions below and show your work.
Number of Individuals in population: 125
AA = 60 Aa = 20 aa = 45
Given:
p = AA + ½Aa
q = aa + ½Aa
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
X2 = ((observed - expected)2 / expected)
X2 1, 0.05 = 3.841
A) What are the observed genotype frequencies?
AA = 60/125 = 0.48 = 48%
Aa = 20/125 = 0.16 = 16%
aa = 45/125 = 0.36 = 36%B) What are the observed allelic frequencies?
A = 120 + 20 = 140/250 = 0.56 = 56% a = 90 + 20 = 110/250 = 0.44 = 44%
250 250
C) What are the Expected genotype frequencies?
AA = p2 = (0.56)2 = 0.3136
Aa = 2pq = [2(0.56)(0.44)] = 0.4928
aa = q2 = (0.44)2 = 0.1936
D) Is the population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? Use the Chi Square test.
Observed Expected
AA 60 0.3136 x 125 = 39.2
Aa 20 0.4928 x 125 = 61.6
aa 45 0.1936 x 125 = 24.2
X2 = (60 – 39.2)2 + (20 – 61.6)2 + (45 – 24.2)2
39.2 61.6 24.2
= 11.036 + 28.0935 + 17.8776
= 57.00
Null = IN HWE
Reject the null because 57.00 is greater than 3.841.
Therefore, this is NOT in HWE.
(4) More Extra Credit.
Given that type O blood has the genotype, ii; type A blood has the genotype AA or Ai; type B blood has the genotype BB or Bi and type AB blood has the genotype AB.
If a population consists of 80 individuals of blood type O and 20 individuals of blood type AB, what are the allelic frequencies in this population? What are the predicted genotype frequencies in the next generation if these individuals mate randomly?
Allelic frequency: i = 0.80 A = 0.10 B = 0.10
Random mating
0.80 i
0.10 A
0.10 B
0.80 i
0.64 ii
0.08Ai
0.08Bi
0.10 A
0.08Ai
0.01AA
0.01AB
0.10 B
0.08Bi
0.01AB
0.01BB
Answer:
0.64 ii
0.08Ai + 0.08Ai = 0.16 Ai
0.08Bi + 0.08Bi = 0.16 Bi
0.01AB + 0.01AB = 0.02AB
0.01AA
0.01 BB
