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Ecology & Evolution Rockwood Exam 1

George Mason University : GMU
Uploaded: 6 years ago
Contributor: ennisbea
Category: Ecology
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Filename:   RW Spring 2013.docx (73.68 kB)
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Spring 2013
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BIOL 308 Exam One Spring 2013 In multiple choice questions, select the one best answer unless instructed otherwise. All multiple choice questions are worth 2 points. There are two extra points on the exam. Score = 102 minus points wrong. Some helpful formulas for you: p = (2NAA + NAa) / 2N q = (2Naa + NAa) / 2N p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 p + q = 1 X2 = ((observed - expected)2 / expected) 1. Which one of the following is not a definition of evolution? A) The descent of different species from a common ancestor over many generations; B) A continuous process of change that produces a series of transformations; C) A change in the gene frequency of a trait in a population or species from one generation to the next; D) A change in gene frequency through time resulting from natural selection that produces cumulative changes in the characteristics of a population; E) Change over time 2. Evolution occurs at the level of the: A) Population; B) Individual; C) Gene; D) Codon. 3. Which of the following has not changed over the history of the earth? A) Biological Species; B) The Atmosphere; C) The position of the Continents; D) The Climate; E) All of the above have changed. 4. What is the meaning of the term theory? A) A statement of general laws, principles, or causes of something known or observed; B) A hypothesis; C) An idea of limited applicability in the real world; D) The weather forecast; E) Your friend’s prediction you will fail this exam since you spent last night watching reruns of “Homeland.” 5. Which one of the following is NOT one of Darwin’s postulates? A) There is limited variation within and between populations for any given trait. B) The genetic traits of organisms are inherited from their parents. C) Normally, many more individuals are produced than can survive. D) The process of natural selection preserves the most fit. 6. Different breeds of dogs illustrate: A) The power of natural selection; B) The power of cultural selection; C) The allopatric model of speciation; D) That evolution cannot occur; E) That dogs are inherently superior to cats. 7. Mahler’s Symphony number 3 is based on: A) Beethoven’s symphony number 9; B) German drinking songs; C) Aristotle’s Great Chain of Being; D) The phylogenetic tree of primates; E) Mozart’s Don Giovanni. 8. Who is Galen? A) A Greek physician; B) The founder of the science of Paleontology; C) A scientist who wrote the essay on human populations; D) The first scientist who established that species have gone extinct. E) A character from a Pink Floyd song. 9. Charles Lyell was: A) The founder of the system we use to classify animals; B) A scientist who developed a theory of evolution similar to that of Darwin; C) A scientist who developed the theory of endosymbiosis as the origin of eukaryotic cells. D) The individual whose experiments lead to the development of the science of genetics. E) The scientist who developed the version of geology known as uniformitarianism. 10. An 18th century scientist who developed a sort of “proto-evolution” theory and advanced the idea that “life has a history.” A) Charles Darwin; B) Buffon; C) Lamarck; D) Wallace; E) Gould 11. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg theory? A) Natural Selection does not occur; B) The population is very large; C) Breeding is random; D) Sexual selection determines breeding; E) All members of the population have identical survivorship and breeding rates. 12. The mechanisms of selection are: A) Natural Selection (including sexual selection); B) Gene Flow (including migration and non-random mating); C) Genetic Drift; D) Mutation; E) All of the above are mechanisms of selection. 13. In the study by Hoekstra et al. on old field and beach mouse populations of the same species, a single amino acid substitution is responsible for the white versus brown color morphs. Assume that the gene coding for brown color is dominant over the gene coding for white color, and that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Now assume that we trap these mice and that our results reflect the true numbers of mice displaying brown versus white coats. If 4% of the mice have white coats, what is the frequency of q, the recessive allele? A) 0.04 B) 0.32 C) 0.40 D) 0.20 E) 0.80 Let us now assume that we can distinguish homozygous individuals from heterozygous individuals in this species. That is, homozygous dominant individuals are dark brown, homozygous recessive individuals are white, and heterozygous individuals are light brown. Field workers go to the beach site and trap all known mice, releasing them after marking by making a small cut on their tails. They find that the current population consists of 36 dark brown individuals, 48 white individuals and 66 light brown individuals. 14. What are the present genotype ratios? A) AA = 0.36 Aa = 0.66 aa = 0.48 B) AA = 0.4968 Aa = 0.2116 aa = 0.2916 C) AA = 0.24 Aa = 0.32 aa = 0.44 D) AA = 0.24 Aa = 0.44 aa = 0.32 15. What are the expected allelic frequencies if this population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, assuming p is the frequency of the A gene and q is the frequency of the a gene? A) p = 0.31 and q = 0.69 B) p = 0.46 and q = 0.54 C) p = 0.27 and q = 0.73 D) p = 0.2116 and q = 0.2916 16. In the experiments by Lenski described in class, the bacterial species E. coli. was grown in flasks and challenged through cycles of feast and famine. The experimental design included 12 replicates and a frozen “fossil record” of the experiment. The results showed that: A) Evolution cannot be demonstrated in bacteria; B) Mutations regularly occurred, but were identical in all 12 lines, demonstrating convergent evolution; C) After 50,000 generations the bacteria grew 75% faster than at the beginning of the experiment; D) The bacteria in all 12 lines were bigger, roughly twice the size of their ancestors; E) Both C and D happened. 17. In Palsson’s lab mutations allowed the bacteria to: A) feed on glycerol and grow twice as fast as their ancestors; B) feed on citrate and grow twice as fast as their ancestors; C) feed on glycerol but grow only slowly; D) feed on maltose and grow twice as fast as their ancestors. 18. In katydids, females select for males presenting them with large spermatophylaxes. This form of sexual selection is also an example of: A) Stabilizing selection; B) Directional selection; C) Disruptive selection; D) Cultural selection; E) Unnatural selection. 19. Females select males with colorful bills in certain bird species since: A) The color reflects overall health and immunological strength; B) Male birds with colorful bills are more likely to attract predators; C) Females do not select males; males select females; D) Males with colorful bills sing better than other males. 20. A female dunnock, on average, successfully raises more chicks under which mating system? A) Monogramy B) Polygamy C) Polyandry D) Polygynandry 21. In the case of the banded Lake Erie water snakes, the banded colored snakes persist on the island due to: A) Natural selection; B) Small populations; C) Sexual Selection; D) Migration; E) All of the above. 22. Kolbe et al. tested the strength of the founder effect on lizard species found in the Caribbean. They wished to test what was more important in this case: the founder effect or natural selection. Their conclusion was: A) There was a very weak and insignificant founder effect; B) Natural selection overcame any genetic bottleneck that might have been observed; C) The founder effect was still present after several years, even when there was the possibility for substantial adaptive differentiation due to the environment; D) Phenotypic plasticity swamped any founder effect. 23. Silent or Synonymous mutations result in: A) Nucleotide changes but not changes in the amino acid sequence; B) Nucleotide changes that do affect amino acid sequences; C) Transitions and never transversions; D) Transversions but never transitions. 24. A change in which position of the codon is least likely to cause a change in an amino acid sequence? A) First position; B) Second position; C) Third position; D) Fourth position; E) It makes no difference. 25. Which of these is a transition? A) A to G B) A to T C) A to C D) T to G 26. Which mutations are most common? A) Frame shift and transversion type point mutations; B) Frame shift mutations; C) Point mutations of the transversion type; D) Point mutations of the transition type. 27. Gene duplication is a way in which genomes can acquire new functions. If a gene is duplicated, one copy can carry out the original function and the new gene can be mutated to carry out a different function. An example of gene duplication is in the amylase gene that allows for starch digestion. Which combination has the greater number of amylase genes? A) Chimpanzees have more than humans and wolves have more than dogs; B) Japanese people have more than Biaka people and dogs have more than wolves; C) Humans have more than chimpanzees and wolves have more than dogs; D) Biaka people have more than chimpanzees and more than Japanese people. 28. The wing of a bat, the flipper of a whale, and the forelimb of a horse appear very different, yet detailed anatomical studies reveal the presence of the same basic bone pattern. These structures are examples of: A) Analogous structures B) Homologous structures C) Vestigial structures D) Pure coincidence E) Magic 29. Genetic drift may cause which of the following to happen in populations? A) Loss of genetic diversity. C) Population divergence. B) Loss of natural selection. D) All of these happen. 30. An example of a knock-out or non-sense mutation is: A) sickle cell anemia. B) thalassemia. C) hemophilia. D) frame-shift mutation. Using the image below answer the questions that follow. 31. Which of the genes are paralogs? A) B? and C? B) C? and B? C) C?1 and C?2 32. Which of the genes are orthologs? A) B? and C? B) B? and C?1 C) A and B? 33. Which of the genes are homologs? A) A and all the other genes B) A and none of the other genes C) All of the genes except A 34. The common ancestor of humans and the other “great apes” walked on all fours, while humans are bipeds. Bipedalism is thus the _______ trait. A) Monophyletic B) Derived C) Synapomorphic D) Homoplasic E) Ancestral 35. As adaptions for flight, the wings of bats and the wings of birds are an example of: A) Synapomorphy; B) Evolutionary reversal; C) Monophyly; D) Paraphyly; E) Convergent Evolution. 36. The content of most standard field guides reflects the _______ species concept. A) Molecular B) Biological C) Morphological D) Ecological 37. What was the main reason that maggot flies became reproductively isolated from one another? A) Genetic Drift B) Chromosomal Inversions C) Change in timing of reproduction and preference for host plants D) Point mutations 38. Which of the following is the most likely sequence of events in geographic speciation? A) Geographic barrier, reproductive isolation, genetic divergence B) Reproductive isolation, geographic barrier, genetic divergence C) Genetic divergence, geographic barrier, reproductive isolation D) Genetic divergence, reproductive isolation, geographic barrier E) Reproductive isolation, genetic divergence, geographic barrier 39. Females of the species Drosophila pseudoobscura respond less well to courtship signals from males of their close relative D. persimilis than they do to those of males of their own species. This is an example of: A) Gametic isolation B) Post zygotic isolation C) Female Choice D) Behavioral isolation E) Both C and D 40. Coevolution: A) Always results in obligatory mutualism; B) Is an interaction among closely related species; C) Results when two or more species engage in close ecological interactions D) Is most common in extreme environments 41. The Acacia-Pseudomyrmex ant mutualism is obligatory because: A) A new queen Pseudomyrmex ant will only search for Acacia trees when she is founding her new colony; B) The Acacia tree will die within 6 months if the ant colony abandons the tree; C) The any colony never feeds on anything except Beltian bodies and extrafloral nectar; D) All of the above. E) None of the above. 42. In the Cecropia peltata-Azteca ant mutualism, the geographic variations in the production of Mullerian bodies show that: A) This is an obligatory mutualism; B) When the ants are not present, through natural selection, the trees have begun eliminating the ant-related traits in the trees; C) This is a facultative mutualism, with high elevation and island populations of Cecropia successfully living without Azteca ants; D) There is no coevolution in this pair of species; E) Both B and C are true. 43. In the work by the Brodies the coevolution between the newt and the species of garter snake showed: A) There is geographic variation in the amount of toxin produced by the newts and in the resistance by the snakes; B) That it is a good idea to look inside your coffee pot before drinking when you are camping; C) That even a resistant snake loses some muscle coordination after eating one of toxic newts; D) That barfing a snake sometimes produces surprising results; E) All of the above. (4) 44. If frequency (or percent of population) is the y-axis and beak size is the x-axis, draw a graph of stabilizing selection. 952533020 14763758890088582540640 10763251390650 269557576835 952560960 676275102870Small Beak Large Beak Now draw a graph of disruptive selection 1905099060 437515111760 0 3038475111760 17335501562101476375156210 19050142240 676275137160Small Beak Large Beak (6) 45. Define fitness and epistasis. Fitness: Fitness is equal to the average contribution of an individual to the gene pool of the next generation Epistasis: Epistasis is the phenomenon whereby the effects of one gene are modified by one or several other genes, which are sometimes called modifier genes. (6) 46. Define character displacement and describe the example of the two finch species found in the Galapagos. Two species, when living in different geographical zones (allopatric) may have nearly identical physical characteristics (beak or overall body sizes in birds, for example). When these species share the same geographical zone (that is are sympatric), natural selection results in one species becoming larger and the other species smaller. That is, these physical characters diverge in one or both species. On Baltra where it is without competition, beak sizes of Geospiza fortis range from 8 - 12 mm. On islands near Isabela, where it is without competition, beak sizes of Geospiza fuliginosa range from 6.5-9.5 mm. On Santa Cruz where they are both present (sympatry), the beak sizes do not even overlap. On Santa Cruz, the beaks of G. fortis are smaller, ranging from 6.0-8.5mm. On Santa Cruz, the beaks of G. fuliginosa are larger, ranging from 9.0-15.0mm.

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