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microlin microlin
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Posts: 38
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11 years ago
If nondisjunction occurs in humans for sister chromatids of one chromosome during Meiosis II, will any normal gametes result? What chromosome number would each gamete have?
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RLC
wrote...
11 years ago
For that specific cell, no.  One of the daughters would have two chromosomes and the other wouldn't have any.  But if you go back to the parent cell, since the nondisjunction happened during Meiosis II, the other cell produced in meiosis I still has a chance of producing two normal daughter cells.

Perhaps if you follow a diagram, this will help you see how this works:  http://img.tfd.com/dorland/thumbs/nondisjunction.jpg

Normal meiosis without nondisjunction is shown in "A".  What your question proposes is shown in the bottom of "C" where the first daughter cell produces a daughter with two chromosomes and one with none.  But the other daughter cell from the first split divides normally during the second division.  Compare these with "B" where the chromosomes don't split between the two daughter cells in Meiosis I, so all the daughter cells are abnormal.
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