Top Posters
Since Sunday
5
a
5
k
5
c
5
B
5
l
5
C
4
s
4
a
4
t
4
i
4
r
4
New Topic  
NVstudent NVstudent
wrote...
11 years ago
How do I calculate the following probability

There are a total of 40 balls in a bag. 32 balls are blue. 8 balls are red. If I draw at random three balls, what is the chance that I will draw all three red balls?

So basically three draws: 8 out of 40 and then 7 out of 39 and then 6 out of 38.
Read 455 times
3 Replies
Replies
Answer accepted by topic starter
micro01micro01
wrote...
Posts: 68
Rep: 1 0
11 years ago
Sign in or Sign up in seconds to unlock everything for free
1

Related Topics

wrote...
11 years ago
Drawing without replacement.

1st draw   8/40
2nd draw  7/39
3rd draw   6/38
Since draws are independent Pr = (8/40)*(7/39)*(6/38)
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Drawing with replacement Pr = (8*/40)^3
wrote...
11 years ago
I think you answered your question... as long as as you draw each ball you do not put it back in the bag.

(8/40) * (7/39) * (6/38) = 336 / 59280 = 0.0056
New Topic      
Explore
Post your homework questions and get free online help from our incredible volunteers
  1275 People Browsing
Related Images
  
 321
  
 312
  
 324
Your Opinion
Which 'study break' activity do you find most distracting?
Votes: 741