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biolove biolove
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Sample Test-Chapters 3, 4, and 5

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____   1.   About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which four of these 25 elements make up approximately 96% of living matter?
a.   carbon, sodium, chlorine, nitrogen
b.   carbon, sulfur, phosphorus, hydrogen
c.   oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium
d.   carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
e.   carbon, oxygen, sulfur, calcium


____   2.   Trace elements are those required by an organism in only minute quantities. Which of the following is a trace element that is required by humans and other vertebrates?
a.   nitrogen
b.   calcium
c.   iodine
d.   sodium
e.   phosphorus


____   3.   Which of the following statements is false?
a.   Atoms of the various elements differ in their number of subatomic particles.
b.   All atoms of a particular element have the same number of protons in their nuclei.
c.   The neutrons and protons present in the nucleus of an atom are almost identical in mass; each has a mass of about 1 dalton.
d.   An atom is the smallest unit of an element that still retains the properties of the element.
e.   Protons and electrons are electrically charged particles. Protons have one unit of negative charge, and electrons have one unit of positive charge.


____   4.   Each element is unique and different from other elements because of the number of protons in the nuclei of its atoms. Which of the following indicates the number of protons in an atom's nucleus?
a.   atomic mass
b.   atomic weight
c.   atomic number
d.   mass weight
e.   mass number


____   5.   The mass number of an element can be easily approximated by adding together the number of ____ in an atom of that element.
a.   protons and neutrons
b.   energy levels
c.   protons and electrons
d.   neutrons and electrons
e.   isotopes


____   6.   What is the approximate atomic mass of an atom with 16 neutrons, 15 protons, and 15 electrons?
a.   15 daltons
b.   16 daltons
c.   30 daltons
d.   31 daltons
e.   46 daltons


____   7.   Oxygen has an atomic number of 8 and a mass number of 16. Thus, the atomic mass of an oxygen atom is
a.   exactly 8 grams.
b.   exactly 8 daltons.
c.   approximately 16 grams.
d.   approximately 16 daltons.
e.   24 amu (atomic mass units).


____   8.   The nucleus of a nitrogen atom contains 7 neutrons and 7 protons. Which of the following is a correct statement concerning nitrogen?
a.   The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 7 daltons and an atomic mass of 14.
b.   The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 14 daltons and an atomic mass of 7.
c.   The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 14 and an atomic mass of 7 grams.
d.   The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 7 grams and an atomic number of 14.
e.   The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 14 and an atomic mass of approximately 14 daltons.


____   9.   Calcium has an atomic number of 20 and an atomic mass of 40. Therefore, a calcium atom must have
a.   20 protons.
b.   40 electrons.
c.   40 neutrons.
d.   A and B only
e.   A, B, and C


____   10.   An atom with an atomic number of 9 and a mass number of 19 would have an atomic mass of approximately
a.   9 daltons.
b.   9 grams.
c.   10 daltons.
d.   20 grams.
e.   19 daltons.


____   11.   Different atomic forms of an element contain the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons. What are these different atomic forms called?
a.   ions
b.   isotopes
c.   neutronic atoms
d.   isomers
e.   radioactive atoms


____   12.   How do isotopes of the same element differ from each other?
a.   number of protons
b.   number of electrons
c.   number of neutrons
d.   valence electron distribution
e.   amount of radioactivity


____   13.   Which of the following best describes the relationship between the atoms described below?
Atom 1   Atom 2
    

a.   They are isomers.
b.   They are polymers.
c.   They are isotopes.
d.   They contain 1 and 3 protons, respectively.
e.   They each contain 1 neutron.


____   14.   Which of the following best describes the relationship between the atoms described below?
Atom 1   Atom 2
    

a.   They are both radioactive.
b.   They are both phosphorus cations.
c.   They are both phosphorus anions.
d.   They are both isotopes of phosphorus.
e.   They contain 31 and 32 protons, respectively.


____   15.   One difference between carbon-12   and carbon-14   is that carbon-14 has
a.   two more protons than carbon-12.
b.   two more electrons than carbon-12.
c.   two more neutrons than carbon-12.
d.   A and C only
e.   B and C only


____   16.   3H is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen. One difference between hydrogen-1 ( H) and hydrogen-3 ( H) is that hydrogen-3 has
a.   one more neutron and one more proton than hydrogen-1.
b.   one more proton and one more electron than hydrogen-1.
c.   one more electron and one more neutron than hydrogen-1.
d.   two more neutrons than hydrogen-1.
e.   two more protons than hydrogen-1.


____   17.   The atomic number of carbon is 6. Carbon-14 is heavier than carbon-12 because the atomic nucleus of carbon-14 contains ____ neutrons.
a.   6
b.   7
c.   8
d.   12
e.   14


____   18.   Two isotopes of the same element will have different numbers of
a.   protons.
b.   neutrons.
c.   electrons.
d.   protons and neutrons.
e.   neutrons and electrons.


____   19.   Electrons exist only at fixed levels of potential energy. However, if an atom absorbs sufficient energy, a possible result is that
a.   an electron may move to an electron shell farther out from the nucleus.
b.   an electron may move to an electron shell closer to the nucleus.
c.   the atom may become a radioactive isotope.
d.   the atom would become a positively charged ion, or cation.
e.   the atom would become a negatively charged ion, or anion.


____   20.   The atomic number of neon is 10. Therefore, which of the following is correct about an atom of neon?
a.   It has 8 electrons in its outer electron shell.
b.   It is inert.
c.   It has an atomic mass of 10 daltons.
d.   A and B only
e.   A, B, and C are correct.


____   21.   From its atomic number of 15, it is possible to predict that the phosphorus atom has
a.   15 neutrons.
b.   15 protons.
c.   15 electrons.
d.   8 electrons in its outermost electron shell.
e.   B and C only


Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

 

____   22.   Which drawing depicts the electron configuration of neon ( Ne)?
a.   Drawing A
b.   Drawing B
c.   Drawing C
d.   Drawing D
e.   Drawing E


____   23.   Which drawing depicts the electron configuration of oxygen ( O)?
a.   Drawing A
b.   Drawing B
c.   Drawing C
d.   Drawing D
e.   Drawing E


____   24.   Which drawing depicts the electron configuration of nitrogen ( N)?
a.   Drawing A
b.   Drawing B
c.   Drawing C
d.   Drawing D
e.   Drawing E


____   25.   Which drawing is of an atom with the atomic number of 6?
a.   Drawing A
b.   Drawing B
c.   Drawing C
d.   Drawing D
e.   Drawing E


____   26.   Which drawing depicts an atom that is inert or chemically unreactive?
a.   Drawing A
b.   Drawing B
c.   Drawing C
d.   Drawing D
e.   Drawing E


____   27.   Which drawing depicts an atom with a valence of 3?
a.   Drawing A
b.   Drawing B
c.   Drawing C
d.   Drawing D
e.   Drawing E


____   28.   Which drawing depicts an atom with a valence of 2?
a.   Drawing A
b.   Drawing B
c.   Drawing C
d.   Drawing D
e.   Drawing E


____   29.   What does the reactivity of an atom depend on?
a.   number of valence shells in the atom
b.   number of orbitals found in the atom
c.   number of electrons in each orbital in the atom
d.   presence of unpaired electrons in the outer valence shell of the atom
e.   presence of hybridized orbitals in the atom


____   30.   Atoms whose outer electron shells contain eight electrons tend to
a.   form ionic bonds in aqueous solutions.
b.   form covalent bonds in aqueous solutions.
c.   be stable and chemically nonreactive, or inert.
d.   be unstable and chemically very reactive.
e.   be isotopes and very radioactive.


____   31.   What are the chemical properties of atoms whose valence shells are filled with electrons?
a.   They form ionic bonds in aqueous solutions.
b.   They form covalent bonds in aqueous solutions.
c.   They are stable and chemically unreactive or inert.
d.   They exhibit similar chemical behaviors.
e.   C and D only


Use the information extracted from the periodic table in the figure below to answer the following questions.

 

____   32.   How many electrons does nitrogen have in its valence shell?
a.   2
b.   5
c.   7
d.   8
e.   14


____   33.   How many electrons does phosphorus have in its valence shell?
a.   1
b.   2
c.   3
d.   4
e.   5


____   34.   How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of a phosphorus atom?
a.   8
b.   15
c.   16
d.   31
e.   46


____   35.   How many electrons does an atom of sulfur have in its valence shell?
a.   4
b.   6
c.   8
d.   16
e.   32


____   36.   Based on electron configuration, which of these elements would exhibit chemical behavior most like that of oxygen?
a.   carbon
b.   hydrogen
c.   nitrogen
d.   sulfur
e.   phosphorus


____   37.   How many electrons would be expected in the outermost electron shell of an atom with atomic number 12?
a.   1
b.   2
c.   4
d.   6
e.   8


____   38.   The atomic number of each atom is given to the left of each of the elements below. Which of the atoms has the same valence as carbon ( C)?
a.   7nitrogen
b.   9fluorine
c.   10neon
d.   12magnesium
e.   14silicon


____   39.   What is the valence of an atom with six electrons in its outer electron shell?
a.   1
b.   2
c.   3
d.   4
e.   5


____   40.   Fluorine has an atomic number of 9 and a mass number of 19. How many electrons are needed to complete the valence shell of a fluorine atom?
a.   1
b.   3
c.   5
d.   7
e.   9
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biolove Author
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____   41.   What is the maximum number of electrons in the 1s orbital of an atom?
a.   1
b.   2
c.   3
d.   4
e.   5


____   42.   What is the maximum number of electrons in a 2p orbital of an atom?
a.   1
b.   2
c.   3
d.   4
e.   5


____   43.   A covalent chemical bond is one in which
a.   electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that the two atoms become oppositely charged.
b.   protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements of both atoms.
c.   outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill the outer electron shells of both atoms.
d.   outer-shell electrons of one atom are transferred to the inner electron shells of another atom.
e.   the inner-shell electrons of one atom are transferred to the outer shell of another atom.


____   44.   What do atoms form when they share electron pairs?
a.   elements
b.   ions
c.   aggregates
d.   isotopes
e.   molecules


____   45.   If an atom of sulfur (atomic number 16) were allowed to react with atoms of hydrogen (atomic number 1), which of the molecules below would be formed?
a.   S-H
b.   H-S-H
c.   H-S-H
|
H
d.   H
|
H-S-H
|
H
e.   H=S=H


____   46.   What is the maximum number of covalent bonds an element with atomic number 8 can make with hydrogen?
a.   1
b.   2
c.   3
d.   4
e.   6


____   47.   A molecule of carbon dioxide (CO2) is formed when one atom of carbon (atomic number 6) is covalently bonded with two atoms of oxygen (atomic number 8). What is the total number of electrons that must be shared between the carbon atom and the oxygen atoms in order to complete the outer electron shell of all three atoms?
a.   1
b.   2
c.   3
d.   4
e.   5


____   48.   Nitrogen (N) is much more electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of the following statements is correct about the atoms in ammonia (NH3)?
a.   Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge.
b.   The nitrogen atom has a strong positive charge.
c.   Each hydrogen atom has a slight negative charge.
d.   The nitrogen atom has a partial positive charge.
e.   There are covalent bonds between the hydrogen atoms.


____   49.   What do the four elements most abundant in life-carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen-have in common?
a.   They all have the same number of valence electrons.
b.   Each element exists in only one isotopic form.
c.   They are equal in electronegativity.
d.   They are elements produced only by living cells.
e.   They all have unpaired electrons in their valence shells.


____   50.   When two atoms are equally electronegative, they will interact to form
a.   equal numbers of isotopes.
b.   ions.
c.   polar covalent bonds.
d.   nonpolar covalent bonds.
e.   ionic bonds.


____   51.   What results from an unequal sharing of electrons between atoms?
a.   a nonpolar covalent bond
b.   a polar covalent bond
c.   an ionic bond
d.   a hydrogen bond
e.   a hydrophobic interaction


____   52.   A covalent bond is likely to be polar when
a.   one of the atoms sharing electrons is much more electronegative than the other atom.
b.   the two atoms sharing electrons are equally electronegative.
c.   the two atoms sharing electrons are of the same element.
d.   it is between two atoms that are both very strong electron acceptors.
e.   the two atoms sharing electrons are different elements.


____   53.   A polar covalent bond can form when
a.   there is the loss of one or more electrons from one atom to another atom of the same molecule.
b.   there is the gain of one or more electrons from one atom to another atom of the same molecule.
c.   one of the atoms has a greater affinity for electrons than the other atom of the same molecule.
d.   one of the atoms has a greater affinity for neutrons than the other atom of the same molecule.
e.   two atoms of a molecule attract electrons equally.


____   54.   Which of the following molecules contains the strongest polar covalent bond?
a.   H2
b.   O2
c.   CO2
d.   H2O
e.   CH4


Use the figure below to answer the following questions. .

 

____   55.   What results from the chemical reaction?
a.   a cation with a net charge of +1
b.   a cation with a net charge of -1
c.   an anion with a net charge of +1
d.   an anion with a net charge of -1
e.   A and D


____   56.   What is the atomic number of the cation formed in the reaction?
a.   1
b.   8
c.   10
d.   11
e.   16


____   57.   The ionic bond of sodium chloride is formed when
a.   chlorine gains an electron from sodium.
b.   sodium and chlorine share an electron pair.
c.   sodium and chlorine both lose electrons from their outer valence shells.
d.   sodium gains an electron from chlorine.
e.   chlorine gains a proton from sodium.


____   58.   What is the difference between covalent bonds and ionic bonds?
a.   Covalent bonds involve the sharing of protons between atoms, and ionic bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms.
b.   Covalent bonds involve the sharing of neutrons between atoms, and ionic bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms.
c.   Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms, and ionic bonds involve the electrical attraction between atoms.
d.   Covalent bonds involve the sharing of protons between atoms, and ionic bonds involve the sharing of neutrons between atoms.
e.   Covalent bonds involve the transfer of electrons between atoms, and ionic bonds involve the sharing of neutrons between atoms.


____   59.   What kind of a bond does NH4+ form with Cl- to make ammonium chloride salt (NH4Cl)?
a.   nonpolar covalent
b.   polar covalent
c.   ionic
d.   hydrogen
e.   C and D only


____   60.   In ammonium chloride salt (NH4Cl) the anion is a single chloride ion,  . What is the cation of NH4Cl?
a.   N, with a charge of +3
b.   H, with a charge of +1
c.   H2 with a charge of +4
d.   NH4 with a charge of +1
e.   NH4 with a charge of +4


____   61.   The atomic number of chlorine is 17. The atomic number of magnesium is 12. What is the formula for magnesium chloride?
a.   MgCl
b.   MgCl2
c.   Mg2Cl
d.   Mg2Cl2
e.   MgCl3


____   62.   Results from a transfer of electron(s) between atoms.
a.   nonpolar covalent bond
b.   polar covalent bond
c.   ionic bond
d.   hydrogen bond
e.   hydrophobic interaction


____   63.   Explains most specifically the attraction of water molecules to one another.
a.   nonpolar covalent bond
b.   polar covalent bond
c.   ionic bond
d.   hydrogen bond
e.   hydrophobic interaction


____   64.   Van der Waals interactions result when
a.   hybrid orbitals overlap.
b.   electrons are not symmetrically distributed in a molecule.
c.   molecules held by ionic bonds react with water.
d.   two polar covalent bonds react.
e.   a hydrogen atom loses an electron.


____   65.   A van der Waals interaction is the weak attraction between
a.   the electrons of one molecule and the electrons of a nearby molecule.
b.   the nucleus of one molecule and the electrons of a nearby molecule.
c.   a polar molecule and a nearby nonpolar molecule.
d.   a polar molecule and a nearby molecule that is also polar.
e.   a nonpolar molecule and a nearby molecule that is also nonpolar.


____   66.   Which of the following is not considered to be a weak molecular interaction?
a.   a covalent bond
b.   a van der Waals interaction
c.   an ionic bond in the presence of water
d.   a hydrogen bond
e.   A and B only


____   67.   Which of the following is true for this reaction? 3 H2 + N2   2 NH3
a.   The reaction is nonreversible.
b.   Hydrogen and nitrogen are the reactants of the reverse reaction.
c.   Hydrogen and nitrogen are the products of the forward reaction.
d.   Ammonia is being formed and decomposed.
e.   Hydrogen and nitrogen are being decomposed.


____   68.   Which of the following best describes chemical equilibrium?
a.   Forward and reverse reactions continue with no effect on the concentrations of the reactants and products.
b.   Concentrations of products are higher than the concentrations of the reactants.
c.   Forward and reverse reactions have stopped so that the concentration of the reactants equals the concentration of the products.
d.   Reactions stop only when all reactants have been converted to products.
e.   There are equal concentrations of reactants and products, and the reactions have stopped.


____   69.   Which of the following describes any reaction that has attained chemical equilibrium?
a.   The concentration of the reactants equals the concentration of the products.
b.   The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction.
c.   All of the reactants have been converted to the products of the reaction.
d.   All of the products have been converted to the reactants of the reaction.
e.   Both the forward and the reverse reactions have stopped with no net effect on the concentration of the reactants and the products.


____   70.   In a single molecule of water, the two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by
a.   hydrogen bonds.
b.   nonpolar covalent bonds.
c.   polar covalent bonds.
d.   ionic bonds.
e.   van der Waals interactions.


____   71.   The slight negative charge at one end of one water molecule is attracted to the slight positive charge of another water molecule. What is this attraction called?
a.   a covalent bond
b.   a hydrogen bond
c.   an ionic bond
d.   a hydrophilic bond
e.   a hydrophobic bond


____   72.   Water is able to form hydrogen bonds because
a.   oxygen has a valence of 2.
b.   the water molecule is shaped like a tetrahedron.
c.   the bonds that hold together the atoms in a water molecule are polar covalent bonds.
d.   the oxygen atom in a water molecule has a weak positive charge.
e.   each of the hydrogen atoms in a water molecule is weakly negative in charge.


____   73.   What determines the cohesiveness of water molecules?
a.   hydrophobic interactions
b.   nonpolar covalent bonds
c.   ionic bonds
d.   hydrogen bonds
e.   both A and C


____   74.   What do cohesion, surface tension, and adhesion have in common with reference to water?
a.   All increase when temperature increases.
b.   All are produced by ionic bonding.
c.   All are properties related to hydrogen bonding.
d.   All have to do with nonpolar covalent bonds.
e.   C and D only


____   75.   Which of the following is possible due to the high surface tension of water?
a.   Lakes don't freeze solid in winter, despite low temperatures.
b.   A water strider can walk across the surface of a small pond.
c.   Organisms resist temperature changes, although they give off heat due to chemical reactions.
d.   Water can act as a solvent.
e.   The pH of water remains exactly neutral.


____   76.   Water's high specific heat is mainly a consequence of the
a.   small size of the water molecules.
b.   high specific heat of oxygen and hydrogen atoms.
c.   absorption and release of heat when hydrogen bonds break and form.
d.   fact that water is a poor heat conductor.
e.   inability of water to dissipate heat into dry air.


____   77.   Which bonds must be broken for water to vaporize?
a.   ionic bonds
b.   nonpolar covalent bonds
c.   polar covalent bonds
d.   hydrogen bonds
e.   covalent bonds


____   78.   The formation of ice during colder weather helps moderate the seasonal transition to winter. This is mainly because
a.   the breaking of hydrogen bonds absorbs heat.
b.   the formation of hydrogen bonds releases heat.
c.   the formation of hydrogen bonds absorbs heat.
d.   there is greater evaporative cooling of lakes.
e.   ice is denser than liquid water.


____   79.   Why does ice float in liquid water?
a.   The liquid water molecules have more kinetic energy and thus support the ice.
b.   The ionic bonds between the molecules in ice prevent the ice from sinking.
c.   Ice always has air bubbles that keep it afloat.
d.   Hydrogen bonds stabilize and keep the molecules of ice farther apart than the water molecules of liquid water.
e.   The crystalline lattice of ice causes it to be denser than liquid water.


____   80.   Which of the following ionizes completely in solution and is considered to be a strong acid?
a.   NaOH
b.   HCl
c.   NH3
d.   H2CO3
e.   CH3COOH
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____   81.   Which of the following ionizes completely in solution and is considered to be a strong base?
a.   NaCl
b.   HCl
c.   NH3
d.   H2CO3
e.   NaOH


____   82.   A given solution contains 0.0001(10-4) moles of hydrogen ions [H+] per liter. Which of the following best describes this solution?
a.   acidic: H+ acceptor
b.   basic: H+ acceptor
c.   acidic: H+ donor
d.   basic: H+ donor
e.   neutral


____   83.   Which of the following solutions has the greatest concentration of hydrogen ions [H+]?
a.   gastric juice at pH 2
b.   vinegar at pH 3
c.   tomato juice at pH 4
d.   black coffee at pH 5
e.   household bleach at pH 12


____   84.   Which of the following solutions has the greatest concentration of hydroxide ions [OH-]?
a.   lemon juice at pH 2
b.   vinegar at pH 3
c.   tomato juice at pH 4
d.   urine at pH 6
e.   seawater at pH 8


____   85.   If the pH of a solution is decreased from 9 to 8, it means that the
a.   concentration of H+ has decreased 10 times what it was at pH 9.
b.   concentration of H+ has increased 10 times what it was at pH 9.
c.   concentration of OH- has increased 10 times what it was at pH 9.
d.   concentration of OH- has decreased 10 times what it was at pH 9.
e.   B and D are correct.


____   86.   If the pH of a solution is increased from pH 5 to pH 7, it means that the
a.   concentration of H+ is 2 times greater than what it was at pH 5.
b.   concentration of H+ is 2 times less than what it was at pH 5.
c.   concentration of OH- is 100 times greater than what it was at pH 5.
d.   concentration of OH- is 100 times less than what it was at pH 5.
e.   concentration of H+ is 100 times greater and the concentration of OH- is 100 times less than what they were at pH 5.


____   87.   Which of the following is not one of the four major groups of macromolecules found in living organisms?
a.   glucose
b.   carbohydrates
c.   lipids
d.   proteins
e.   nucleic acids


____   88.   Polymers of polysaccharides, fats, and proteins are all synthesized from monomers by which process?
a.   connecting monosaccharides together (condensation reactions)
b.   the addition of water to each monomer (hydrolysis)
c.   the removal of water (dehydration reactions)
d.   ionic bonding of the monomers
e.   the formation of disulfide bridges between monomers


____   89.   Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?
a.   Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis breaks down polymers.
b.   Hydrolysis only occurs in the urinary system, and dehydration reactions only occur in the digestive tract.
c.   Dehydration reactions can occur only after hydrolysis.
d.   Hydrolysis creates monomers, and dehydration reactions break down polymers.
e.   A and C are correct.


____   90.   A molecule with the chemical formula C16H32O16 is probably a
a.   carbohydrate.
b.   lipid.
c.   protein.
d.   nucleic acid.
e.   hydrocarbon.


____   91.   Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined by a glycosidic linkage to one galactose molecule. How is lactose classified?
a.   as a pentose
b.   as a hexose
c.   as a monosaccharide
d.   as a disaccharide
e.   as a polysaccharide


____   92.   Which of the following are polysaccharides?
a.   glycogen
b.   starch
c.   chitin
d.   A and B only
e.   A, B, and C


____   93.   Which of the following is true of both starch and cellulose?
a.   They are both polymers of glucose.
b.   They are geometric isomers of each other.
c.   They can both be digested by humans.
d.   They are both used for energy storage in plants.
e.   They are both structural components of the plant cell wall.


____   94.   Which of the following is true of cellulose?
a.   It is a polymer composed of sucrose monomers.
b.   It is a storage polysaccharide for energy in plant cells.
c.   It is a storage polysaccharide for energy in animal cells.
d.   It is a major structural component of plant cell walls.
e.   It is a major structural component of animal cell plasma membranes.


____   95.   A molecule with the formula C18H36O2 is probably a
a.   carbohydrate.
b.   lipid.
c.   protein.
d.   nucleic acid.
e.   hydrocarbon.


____   96.   Which of the following is (are) true for the class of large biological molecules known as lipids?
a.   They are insoluble in water.
b.   They are an important constituent of cell membranes.
c.   They contain twice as much energy as an equivalent weight of polysaccharide.
d.   Only A and B are correct.
e.   A, B, and C are correct.


____   97.   Triacylglycerol is a
a.   protein with tertiary structure.
b.   lipid made with three fatty acids and glycerol.
c.   lipid that makes up much of the plasma membrane.
d.   molecule formed from three alcohols by dehydration reactions.
e.   carbohydrate with three sugars joined together by glycosidic linkages.


____   98.   Saturated fatty acids
a.   are the predominant fatty acid in corn oil.
b.   have double bonds between carbon atoms of the fatty acids.
c.   have a higher ratio of hydrogen to carbon than do unsaturated fatty acids.
d.   are usually liquid at room temperature.
e.   are usually produced by plants.


____   99.   A polypeptide can best be described as a
a.   monomer of a protein polymer.
b.   polymer containing 20 amino acid molecules.
c.   polymer containing 19 peptide bonds.
d.   polymer containing 20 peptide bonds.
e.   polymer of amino acids.


____   100.   Dehydration reactions are used in forming which of the following compounds?
a.   triacylglycerides
b.   polysaccharides
c.   proteins
d.   A and C only
e.   A, B, and C


____   101.   Which bonds are created during the formation of the primary structure of a protein?
a.   peptide bonds
b.   hydrogen bonds
c.   disulfide bonds
d.   phosphodiester bonds
e.   A, B, and C


____   102.   What is the term used for a protein molecule that assists in the proper folding of other proteins?
a.   tertiary protein
b.   chaperonin
c.   enzyme protein
d.   renaturing protein
e.   denaturing protein


____   103.   Of the following functions, the major purpose of RNA is to
a.   transmit genetic information to offspring.
b.   function in the synthesis of protein.
c.   make a copy of itself, thus ensuring genetic continuity.
d.   act as a pattern or blueprint to form DNA.
e.   form the genes of higher organisms.


____   104.   Which of the following best describes the flow of information in eukaryotic cells?
a.   DNA   RNA   proteins
b.   RNA   proteins   DNA
c.   proteins   DNA   RNA
d.   RNA   DNA   proteins
e.   DNA   proteins   RNA


____   105.   All of the following nitrogenous bases are found in DNA except
a.   thymine.
b.   adenine.
c.   uracil.
d.   guanine.
e.   cytosine.


____   106.   Which of the following statements best summarizes the structural differences between DNA and RNA?
a.   RNA is a protein, whereas DNA is a nucleic acid.
b.   DNA is a protein, whereas RNA is a nucleic acid.
c.   DNA nucleotides contain a different sugar than RNA nucleotides.
d.   RNA is a double helix, but DNA is single-stranded.
e.   A and D are correct.


____   107.   In the double helix structure of nucleic acids, cytosine hydrogen bonds to
a.   deoxyribose.
b.   ribose.
c.   adenine.
d.   thymine.
e.   guanine.


____   108.   The two strands making up the DNA double helix molecule
a.   cannot be separated.
b.   contain ribose and deoxyribose in opposite strands.
c.   are held together by hydrogen bonds.
d.   are attached through a phosphate to hold the strands together.
e.   contain uracil but not thymine.
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wrote...
12 years ago
Is this the full test bank?
biolove Author
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12 years ago
Is this the full test bank?

Ya.
jk
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12 years ago
It's not the test bank instructors use.  This won't help you.  Just study.
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12 years ago
how about the answers !
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12 years ago
how about the answers !

attached Slight Smile
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12 years ago
I really want the answers and I can't open them cause I am a new member ... could anyone post them plzz Slight Smile thanks a lot
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12 years ago
Sample Test-Chapters 3, 4, and 5

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____   1.   About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which four of these 25 elements make up approximately 96% of living matter?
a.   carbon, sodium, chlorine, nitrogen
b.   carbon, sulfur, phosphorus, hydrogen
c.   oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium
d.   carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
e.   carbon, oxygen, sulfur, calcium


____   2.   Trace elements are those required by an organism in only minute quantities. Which of the following is a trace element that is required by humans and other vertebrates?
a.   nitrogen
b.   calcium
c.   iodine
d.   sodium
e.   phosphorus


____   3.   Which of the following statements is false?
a.   Atoms of the various elements differ in their number of subatomic particles.
b.   All atoms of a particular element have the same number of protons in their nuclei.
c.   The neutrons and protons present in the nucleus of an atom are almost identical in mass; each has a mass of about 1 dalton.
d.   An atom is the smallest unit of an element that still retains the properties of the element.
e.   Protons and electrons are electrically charged particles. Protons have one unit of negative charge, and electrons have one unit of positive charge.


____   4.   Each element is unique and different from other elements because of the number of protons in the nuclei of its atoms. Which of the following indicates the number of protons in an atom's nucleus?
a.   atomic mass
b.   atomic weight
c.   atomic number
d.   mass weight
e.   mass number


____   5.   The mass number of an element can be easily approximated by adding together the number of ____ in an atom of that element.
a.   protons and neutrons
b.   energy levels
c.   protons and electrons
d.   neutrons and electrons
e.   isotopes


____   6.   What is the approximate atomic mass of an atom with 16 neutrons, 15 protons, and 15 electrons?
a.   15 daltons
b.   16 daltons
c.   30 daltons
d.   31 daltons
e.   46 daltons


____   7.   Oxygen has an atomic number of 8 and a mass number of 16. Thus, the atomic mass of an oxygen atom is
a.   exactly 8 grams.
b.   exactly 8 daltons.
c.   approximately 16 grams.
d.   approximately 16 daltons.
e.   24 amu (atomic mass units).


____   8.   The nucleus of a nitrogen atom contains 7 neutrons and 7 protons. Which of the following is a correct statement concerning nitrogen?
a.   The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 7 daltons and an atomic mass of 14.
b.   The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 14 daltons and an atomic mass of 7.
c.   The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 14 and an atomic mass of 7 grams.
d.   The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 7 grams and an atomic number of 14.
e.   The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 14 and an atomic mass of approximately 14 daltons.


____   9.   Calcium has an atomic number of 20 and an atomic mass of 40. Therefore, a calcium atom must have
a.   20 protons.
b.   40 electrons.
c.   40 neutrons.
d.   A and B only
e.   A, B, and C


____   10.   An atom with an atomic number of 9 and a mass number of 19 would have an atomic mass of approximately
a.   9 daltons.
b.   9 grams.
c.   10 daltons.
d.   20 grams.
e.   19 daltons.


____   11.   Different atomic forms of an element contain the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons. What are these different atomic forms called?
a.   ions
b.   isotopes
c.   neutronic atoms
d.   isomers
e.   radioactive atoms


____   12.   How do isotopes of the same element differ from each other?
a.   number of protons
b.   number of electrons
c.   number of neutrons
d.   valence electron distribution
e.   amount of radioactivity


____   13.   Which of the following best describes the relationship between the atoms described below?
Atom 1   Atom 2
    

a.   They are isomers.
b.   They are polymers.
c.   They are isotopes.
d.   They contain 1 and 3 protons, respectively.
e.   They each contain 1 neutron.


____   14.   Which of the following best describes the relationship between the atoms described below?
Atom 1   Atom 2
    

a.   They are both radioactive.
b.   They are both phosphorus cations.
c.   They are both phosphorus anions.
d.   They are both isotopes of phosphorus.
e.   They contain 31 and 32 protons, respectively.


____   15.   One difference between carbon-12   and carbon-14   is that carbon-14 has
a.   two more protons than carbon-12.
b.   two more electrons than carbon-12.
c.   two more neutrons than carbon-12.
d.   A and C only
e.   B and C only


____   16.   3H is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen. One difference between hydrogen-1 ( H) and hydrogen-3 ( H) is that hydrogen-3 has
a.   one more neutron and one more proton than hydrogen-1.
b.   one more proton and one more electron than hydrogen-1.
c.   one more electron and one more neutron than hydrogen-1.
d.   two more neutrons than hydrogen-1.
e.   two more protons than hydrogen-1.


____   17.   The atomic number of carbon is 6. Carbon-14 is heavier than carbon-12 because the atomic nucleus of carbon-14 contains ____ neutrons.
a.   6
b.   7
c.   8
d.   12
e.   14


____   18.   Two isotopes of the same element will have different numbers of
a.   protons.
b.   neutrons.
c.   electrons.
d.   protons and neutrons.
e.   neutrons and electrons.


____   19.   Electrons exist only at fixed levels of potential energy. However, if an atom absorbs sufficient energy, a possible result is that
a.   an electron may move to an electron shell farther out from the nucleus.
b.   an electron may move to an electron shell closer to the nucleus.
c.   the atom may become a radioactive isotope.
d.   the atom would become a positively charged ion, or cation.
e.   the atom would become a negatively charged ion, or anion.


____   20.   The atomic number of neon is 10. Therefore, which of the following is correct about an atom of neon?
a.   It has 8 electrons in its outer electron shell.
b.   It is inert.
c.   It has an atomic mass of 10 daltons.
d.   A and B only
e.   A, B, and C are correct.


____   21.   From its atomic number of 15, it is possible to predict that the phosphorus atom has
a.   15 neutrons.
b.   15 protons.
c.   15 electrons.
d.   8 electrons in its outermost electron shell.
e.   B and C only


Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

 

____   22.   Which drawing depicts the electron configuration of neon ( Ne)?
a.   Drawing A
b.   Drawing B
c.   Drawing C
d.   Drawing D
e.   Drawing E


____   23.   Which drawing depicts the electron configuration of oxygen ( O)?
a.   Drawing A
b.   Drawing B
c.   Drawing C
d.   Drawing D
e.   Drawing E


____   24.   Which drawing depicts the electron configuration of nitrogen ( N)?
a.   Drawing A
b.   Drawing B
c.   Drawing C
d.   Drawing D
e.   Drawing E


____   25.   Which drawing is of an atom with the atomic number of 6?
a.   Drawing A
b.   Drawing B
c.   Drawing C
d.   Drawing D
e.   Drawing E


____   26.   Which drawing depicts an atom that is inert or chemically unreactive?
a.   Drawing A
b.   Drawing B
c.   Drawing C
d.   Drawing D
e.   Drawing E


____   27.   Which drawing depicts an atom with a valence of 3?
a.   Drawing A
b.   Drawing B
c.   Drawing C
d.   Drawing D
e.   Drawing E


____   28.   Which drawing depicts an atom with a valence of 2?
a.   Drawing A
b.   Drawing B
c.   Drawing C
d.   Drawing D
e.   Drawing E


____   29.   What does the reactivity of an atom depend on?
a.   number of valence shells in the atom
b.   number of orbitals found in the atom
c.   number of electrons in each orbital in the atom
d.   presence of unpaired electrons in the outer valence shell of the atom
e.   presence of hybridized orbitals in the atom


____   30.   Atoms whose outer electron shells contain eight electrons tend to
a.   form ionic bonds in aqueous solutions.
b.   form covalent bonds in aqueous solutions.
c.   be stable and chemically nonreactive, or inert.
d.   be unstable and chemically very reactive.
e.   be isotopes and very radioactive.


____   31.   What are the chemical properties of atoms whose valence shells are filled with electrons?
a.   They form ionic bonds in aqueous solutions.
b.   They form covalent bonds in aqueous solutions.
c.   They are stable and chemically unreactive or inert.
d.   They exhibit similar chemical behaviors.
e.   C and D only


Use the information extracted from the periodic table in the figure below to answer the following questions.

 

____   32.   How many electrons does nitrogen have in its valence shell?
a.   2
b.   5
c.   7
d.   8
e.   14


____   33.   How many electrons does phosphorus have in its valence shell?
a.   1
b.   2
c.   3
d.   4
e.   5


____   34.   How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of a phosphorus atom?
a.   8
b.   15
c.   16
d.   31
e.   46


____   35.   How many electrons does an atom of sulfur have in its valence shell?
a.   4
b.   6
c.   8
d.   16
e.   32


____   36.   Based on electron configuration, which of these elements would exhibit chemical behavior most like that of oxygen?
a.   carbon
b.   hydrogen
c.   nitrogen
d.   sulfur
e.   phosphorus


____   37.   How many electrons would be expected in the outermost electron shell of an atom with atomic number 12?
a.   1
b.   2
c.   4
d.   6
e.   8


____   38.   The atomic number of each atom is given to the left of each of the elements below. Which of the atoms has the same valence as carbon ( C)?
a.   7nitrogen
b.   9fluorine
c.   10neon
d.   12magnesium
e.   14silicon


____   39.   What is the valence of an atom with six electrons in its outer electron shell?
a.   1
b.   2
c.   3
d.   4
e.   5


____   40.   Fluorine has an atomic number of 9 and a mass number of 19. How many electrons are needed to complete the valence shell of a fluorine atom?
a.   1
b.   3
c.   5
d.   7
e.   9
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