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If a country produces only two goods, then it is not possible to have an absolute advantage in the p

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If a country produces only two goods, then it is not possible to have an absolute advantage in the p

If a country produces only two goods, then it is not possible to have an absolute advantage in the production of both those goods.
True or false?

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Essentials of Economics

Essentials of Economics

Edition: 4^th

Authors: Hubbard, O'Brien

Read 181 times

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Repeat after me: 'Calm down. Things are gonna be fine. Things are gonna be all great. Just relax.' Wink Face

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