(Solved) Why is the resting membrane potential the same value in both the sensory neuron and the interneuron?

jerikamiller

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12 years ago

Why is the resting membrane potential the same value in both the sensory neuron and the interneuron?

I'm having troubles finishing up that few problems on my physioex 9.0 exercise 3 sheet. If anyone could help me out with these it would be much appreciated..

1. The olfactory receptor also contains a membrane protein that recognizes isoamyl acetate and, via several other molecules, transduces the odor stimulus into a receptor potential. Does the Pacinian corpuscle likely have the isoamyl acetate receptor protein? Does the free nerve ending likely have this isoamyl acetate receptor protein?

2. Why is the resting membrane potential the same value in both the sensory neuron and the interneuron?

3.What is the relationship between the interspike interval and the frequency of action potentials?

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bio_man

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12 years ago

Quote from: jerikamiller (12 years ago)

1. The olfactory receptor also contains a membrane protein that recognizes isoamyl acetate and, via several other molecules, transduces the odor stimulus into a receptor potential. Does the Pacinian corpuscle likely have the isoamyl acetate receptor protein? Does the free nerve ending likely have this isoamyl acetate receptor protein?

The Pacinian corpuscle and the free nerve ending are not likely to have the isoamyl acetate receptor because they did not respond to chemical stimuli.

What do you think the other two may be?

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blackxrs

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Why is the resting membrane potential the same value in both the sensory neuron and the interneuron?

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