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Clinical Massage Therapy: A Structural Approach to Pain Management
Uploaded: A year ago
Contributor: Guest
Category: Health, Nutrition, and Food Sciences
Type: Solutions
Rating: A (1)
Filename:   Waslaski_ch03.doc (66 kB)
Page Count: 4
Credit Cost: 1
Views: 234
Downloads: 1
Last Download: A year ago
Description
Chapter 3
Transcript
1. Which protocol is critical to perform before the knee protocol A) lower leg B) cervical spine C) pelvic stabilization D) shoulder 2. You have a client who has a hypermobile knee. Which of the following actions should you take A) Perform gentle multidirectional friction around the patella. B) Perform myofascial release to the quadriceps. C) Perform RICE therapy. D) Refer the client to his or her physician. 3. A positive sign on which test indicates extreme knee instability and the need to refer your client to an orthopedic surgeon A) SAG test B) valgus stress test C) varus stress test D) Apley distraction test 4. Which test is used to determine the stability of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) A) posterior drawer test B) Lachman test C) Apley distraction test D) patella femoral compression test 5. Which ligament prevents anterior movement of the tibia in relation to the femur A) anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) B) posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) C) medial collateral ligament (MCL) D) lateral collateral ligament (LCL) 6. Which ligament prevents posterior movement of the tibia in relation to the femur A) medial collateral ligament (MCL) B) anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) C) posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) D) lateral collateral ligament (LCL) 7. The valgus stress test is done to determine damage to which ligament A) medial collateral ligament (MCL) B) lateral collateral ligament (LCL) C) posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) D) anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) 8. Which test is performed to determine damage to the lateral collateral ligament A) valgus stress test B) varus stress test C) anterior drawer test D) posterior drawer test 9. Which of the following will increase the accuracy of the tests to the MCL and LCL A) Flexing the knee to approximately 45 degrees. B) Flexing the hip to approximately 90 degrees. C) Flexing the hip to 30 degrees. D) Flexing the knee to approximately 15 to 20 degrees. 10. Which ligament is also known as the fibular collateral ligament A) anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) B) posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) C) medial collateral ligament (MCL) D) lateral collateral ligament (LCL) 11. What is the normal range of motion for knee flexion A) 90 degrees B) 120 degrees C) 135 degrees D) 150 degrees 12. What is the normal range of motion for knee extension A) 0 to 10 degrees B) 20 to 25 degrees C) 30 to 45 degrees D) 60 to 70 degrees 13. Which of the following is a cartilage disc in the knee joint between the tibia and femur A) meniscus B) patella C) intervertebral disc D) osteocyte 14. Which muscle is a knee tibial lateral rotator A) semitendinosus B) semimembranosus C) biceps femoris D) popliteus 15. The sensation felt at the end of accessory motion of the joint is called what A) pain B) strain C) sprain D) end feel 16. The end feel during the quadriceps stretch should be which of the following A) bone-on-bone B) leathery C) springy D) mushy 17. Which test involves the client lying prone with knee flexed at 90 degrees and the therapist gently lifting the tibia away from the femur and slowly rotating it A) Apley distraction B) Apley compression C) patello femoral compression test D) patellar tendinosis knee flexion test 18. Which condition involves degeneration of cartilage on the underside of the patella, resulting in pain and a grating sensation A) patellar tendinitis B) patellar tendinosis C) chondomalacia D) ligament sprain 19. Which test is used to detect chondomalacia A) patello femoral compression test B) Apley compression test C) anterior drawer test D) SAG test 20. Which step in the quadriceps protocol has as its goal to assess whether there is a patellar tendon strain present and, if so, where it is located A) myofascial release B) resisted range of motion C) cross-fiber gliding strokes D) multidirectional friction 21. Which muscle originates on the lateral epicondyle of the femur and inserts on the calcaneus A) popliteus B) plantaris C) rectus femoris D) iliotibial band 22. In which situation is a client most likely to experience pain behind the knee A) when running B) when lying down C) when sitting D) when standing up from a seated position 23. For which condition should you use ice on a muscle belly A) inflammation B) muscle strain C) ligament sprain D) trigger point is present 24. What is the normal range of motion for dorsiflexion A) 0 to 10 degrees B) 20 to 30 degrees C) 40 to 50 degrees D) 60 to 70 degrees 25. Which muscle initiates knee flexion by medially rotating the knee A) distal hamstring B) plantaris C) popliteus D) rectus femoris 26. Which of the following is TRUE of menisci A) They are c shaped. B) They are located between the femur and the iliac fossa. C) The lateral meniscus is more commonly injured than the medial meniscus. D) Their job is to stabilize the medial and lateral knee. 27. Which of the following is TRUE of iliotibial band friction syndrome A) It occurs on the medial side of the knee. B) Pain typically occurs during rest. C) Pain typically decreases at about 30 degrees of knee flexion. D) Going up and down stairs causes pain. 28. Which should you do when assessing resisted range of motion in a client with an injury to the lateral meniscus A) Treat a torn muscle or tendon first. B) Work quickly. C) Perform the assessment on clients with hypermobile knee. D) Balance out the surrounding muscle groups before treating a torn muscle or tendon. 29. Which stretch is performed with the client sitting up A) gastrocnemius stretch B) distal hamstring stretch C) quadriceps stretch D) TFL stretch 30. Which stretch should a client perform to relieve iliotibial band pain A) distal hamstring stretch B) gluteus maximus lateral fiber stretch C) quadriceps stretch D) gastrocnemius stretch PAGE PAGE 1
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Comments (1)
A year ago
It does contain the solutions


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