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Home Q & A Board Biology-Related Homework Help Genetics and Developmental Biology
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tony7723 tony7723
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11 years ago
If genes are recessive, you would need to receive the same gene from both sets of parents. If so, how could any recessive gene ever show itself if it were a mutation found only in 1 person?
I just read a news story on msn and various other news sites, that said that in fact they had linked the gene back to one single person
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#1
11 years ago
You're thinking too small in time scales.  It starts in one, his his kids are carriers, some of their kids are carriers and a few generations down the line a carrier mates with a carrier.  

Throw in some genetic drift due to a founder effect (in this case the small number of humans who migrated to Europe) and you get a high level of a recessive trait.
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ferncaz95ferncaz95
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11 years ago
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#3
11 years ago
Is a probability issue. If one of the parents have the gene and the other not. The probability of the gene manifestation depend of how recesive is the gene. But if both parents have the same gene, is close to 100% the gene manifestation of course.

The scientifics tell that all the new mutations start like recesive character. And became a dominant if the population start to adop it.
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